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* Ck Free150 - Psych- What's the Dx?
 #841827  
  dream250 - 06/17/17 16:58
 
  A 27-year-old woman comes to the physician because of a 3-year history of chronic diarrhea and intermittent, crampy, lower abdominal pain. The pain is usually relieved with defecation and does not occur at night or interfere with sleep. She says she is frustrated by her symptoms and has stopped traveling because of her frequent, urgent need to use the bathroom. She has no history of serious illness and takes no medications. Her temperature is 37C (98.6F), pulse is 70/min, respirations are 14/min, and blood pressure is 120/80 mm Hg. The lower abdomen is mildly tender to palpation; there is no rebound tenderness or guarding. The remainder of the examination shows no abnormalities. Results of laboratory studies are within the reference ranges. Test of the stool for occult blood is negative. Antigliadin antibodies are not present. Which of the following is the most appropriate pharmacotherapy?

(A) Nefazodone
(B) Nortriptyline
(C) Phenelzine
(D) Sertraline
(E) Venlafaxine

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My dx = Irritable bowel syndrome. Rx = SSRI?
Correct Ans is B.
 
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