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* Ob/gyn Form 4
  kennychan - 07/04/18 17:19
  1) A 25-year-old primigravid woman is admitted in labor at 39 week’s gestation. The cervix is 6 cm dilated and 100% effaced. The presenting part is not palpable. Fetal heart rate is 140/min. The estimated fetal weight is 3200g. Which of the following is the most appropriate next in management?
a) X-ray pelvimetry
b) Ultrasonography
c) Oxytocin augmentation
d) Amniotomy
e) Cesarean delivery (wrong)

2) A 36-year-old woman, G2 P1, at 41 weeks’ gestation has had rupture membranes without contractions for 8 hours. Her first infant weighed 4422 g (9Lb 12oz) at birth. This pregnancy has been uncomplicated except for gestational diabetes, which was diagnosed at 26 weeks’ gestation and has been well controlled with diet. Four hours later, her cervix is 4 cm dilated and completely effaced. Continuous epidural anesthesia is administered. Two hours later, the fetal heart rate pattern demonstrated late decelerations with each contraction. The contractions occur every minute, last 45 seconds, and are 75 mm Hg at their peak. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for this pattern?
A) Epidural anesthesia
B) Fetal macrosomia (wrong)
C) Gestational diabetes
D) Oxytocin administration
E) Postdates pregnancy

3) A 21-year-old primigravid woman at 41 weeks’ gestation is admitted to the hospital in labor. Her pregnancy has been uncomplicated. Contractions occurs every 3 minutes. The cervix is 100% effaced and 4cm dilated; the vertex is at +1 station. The membranes rupture yielding moderately thick meconium-stained fluid. The fetal heart rate has a baseline of 130/min with variable decelerations lasting 45 seconds and decreasing to 60/min. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

a) External cephalic version
b) Forces delivery
c) Amnioinfusion
d) Amniocentesis
e) Cordocentesis (wrong)

4) A 32-year-old primigravid woman at term has a cervix that has remained 5 cm dilated over the past 4 hours despite the administration of oxytocin. Contractions occurs every 3 minutes and are 55 to 64 mm Hg by intrauterine pressure catheter measurement. Examination shows a somewhat molded vertex and considerable caput succedaneum. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

A) Arrest of active phase
B) Hypotonic contractions
C) Protracted latent phase (wrong)
D) Normal active phase
E) Normal second phase

Please help and give your opinions and explanations. Thanks.
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* Re:Ob/gyn Form 4
  kennychan - 07/10/18 15:10
  Please help!  
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* Re:Ob/gyn Form 4
  captan - 07/10/18 21:48
  1) C Oxytocin for labor stimulation in active phase
2) D tachysystole
3) C Amnioinfusion
4)A) Arrest of active phase
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* Re:Ob/gyn Form 4
  kennychan - 07/10/18 23:14
  All answers make sense thank you!  
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