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* ck question
  jaguar12345 - 06/25/20 13:37
  A 32-year-old woman comes to the emergency department because of a 1-day history of sharp, right-sided chest
pain that worsens with coughing and sneezing. Four days ago, she had a mild sore throat and runny nose followed
by nonproductive cough 1 day later. Over-the-counter decongestant and aspirin mildly relieved the symptoms. She
has not had shortness of breath, blood-tinged sputum, fever, or chills. She has a long-standing history of recurrent
aphthous ulcers. Her only medication is an oral contraceptive. Temperature is 37.2C (99.0F), pulse is 65/min, and
respirations are 14/min. Pulse oximetry on room air shows an oxygen saturation of 99%. Splinting is observed over
the right hemithorax with deep breathing. On cardiac examination, no abnormalities are heard. The remainder of the
examination shows no abnormalities. Chest x-ray shows no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most
appropriate next step in management?
(A) Azithromycin therapy
(B) CT angiography
(C) Electrocardiography
(D) Ibuprofen therapy
(E) Prednisone therapy
(F) Transthoracic echocardiography

isn't it pericarditis ? why did not we do TTE
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