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* fred - good explanation for this one? - OB/Gyn
 #863195  
  mocha260 - 09/11/20 04:43
 
  A 32-year-old nulligravid woman comes to the office for counseling prior to conception. Menses occur at irregular
40- and 60-day intervals. She has impaired glucose tolerance controlled by diet. She takes no medications. She is
165 cm (5 ft 5 cm) tall and weighs 84 kg (185 lb); BMI is 31 kg/m2 . Vital signs are within normal limits.
Examination shows no abnormalities. Her fasting serum glucose concentration is 120 mg/dL. This patient is at
greatest risk for developing which of the following?

(A) Gestational diabetes
(B) Hypothyroidism
(C) Intrauterine growth restriction
(D) Placenta previa
(E) Preterm labor

I picked B since shes is overweight/obese. Why A?
 
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* Re:fred - good explanation for this one? - OB/Gyn
#3390060
  miska0102 - 09/11/20 12:30
 
  The question asks, what is she at the greatest risk of developing considering her obesity, irregular menses probably due to PCOS and impaired glucose tolerance test that has been managed with diet. Hypothyroidism can cause dislipidemia and problem with fertility but is not most common cause of gestational diabetes once she gets pregnant. Hope that helps  
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* Re:fred - good explanation for this one? - OB/Gyn
#3390077
  mocha260 - 09/12/20 02:55
 
  Oops sorry, I meant I picked E. Preterm labor because shes at risk of getting polyhydroamnios.

Hypothyroidism doesn't even make sense at all.

I was between A and E, I was thinking not all diabetics get gestational diabetes as much as polyhydroamnios



**** Really thankful to you Miska for helping me clear up my confusion.
 
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