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nbme 4 - noelleogu
#1
A 16-year-old girl comes to the physician because of painful genital lesions for 2 days. Over the past 6 months, she has been sexually active with five male partners; she last had sexual intercourse 2 weeks ago. As far as she knows, her sexual partners have not had similar symptoms. Examination shows two 3 x3-mm ulcerated lesions on the anterior vaginal vault. She currently has a new boyfriend with whom she has not had sexual intercourse and would like to know the best way to prevent transmission of her infection. Which of the following is the most appropriate strategy to prevent transmission?



o A) Use of condoms when lesions are present
O B) Consistent condom use *********************
O C) Acyclovir therapy for the patient far 7 days
O D) Penicillin therapy for the patient for 3 weeks
O E) Prophylactic acyclovir

i chose B and got it wrong.Please who got this right?
fill me in.thanks
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#2
answer is B Consistent condom use >>i got it right
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#3
Ok.thats confusing!
Alright thanks
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#4

B is the answer
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#5
of course C.

the pt has active lesion, you have to tx first. with active lesion, condom is not 100% working just like any other STDs.

go get tx first and have sex after the lesions healed.
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#6
Pat 16 y/o Condom use effective means of reducing, scenario tell you only 48hrs. If story tale paint the picture of "chronic" then bz pat female then you could of argue young and restless and shown not responsible her choice made by the individual.
C would be wrong ans.
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#7
wake up ppl, she has ACTIVE LESION. the virus mingles with vaginal secretion will quickly climb up along the condom while the vibrant motion actually helps the spread, and they will probably spill here and there on the abd, suprapubic area, even into the condom, then the shaft, glans, etc. dont mention very often oral.

no sex until the leisons are gone. BOTTOMLINE.
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#8
B correct here.
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#9
c.treat infx first
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#10
guys the answer is B.
i probably mis-marked on the question or something
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