10-13-2006, 10:37 PM
A 4080-g (9-lb) male newborn is delivered at term to a
32-year-old woman, gravida 2, para 1. Apgar scores are 8 and 9 at 1 and 5
minutes, respectively. Examination in the delivery room shows fracture of
the right clavicle. Which of the following is the most likely sequela
of this condition?
A
) Correction only with casting
B
) Correction only with physical therapy
C
) Left-hand dominance
D
) Permanent nerve damage
E
) Spontaneous healing without treatment
32-year-old woman, gravida 2, para 1. Apgar scores are 8 and 9 at 1 and 5
minutes, respectively. Examination in the delivery room shows fracture of
the right clavicle. Which of the following is the most likely sequela
of this condition?
A
) Correction only with casting
B
) Correction only with physical therapy
C
) Left-hand dominance
D
) Permanent nerve damage
E
) Spontaneous healing without treatment