has been suffering from a progressive blurring of vision in her right eye. On funduscopic examination, a small white opaque lesion is noted on the retina of her right eye. Which of the following is the most appropriate therapy for this patient?
A. Acyclovir
B. Amantadine
C. Flucytosine
D. Ganciclovir
E. Zidovudine
hi dolly ,are these UW questions?
explain please,I forgot pharm
hi drvirgo these are qs from k qbank current version...i like that they have made their qs longer and slighty tougher than before, so i figured ppl here would enjoy doin them
expl for the q above is:
Explanation:
The correct choice is D. This patient is most likely suffering from cytomegalovirus (CMV) retinitis. The best drug treatment for this infection is ganciclovir.
Acyclovir (choice A) is not effective in CMV infections. It is used more for HSV type 1 and 2 infections.
Amantadine (choice B) is used either therapeutically or prophylactically for the influenza A virus.
Flucytosine (choice C) is an antifungal agent.
Zidovudine (choice E) is a first-line drug for the treatment of AIDS. The drug by itself is ineffective against CMV retinitis.