USMLE Forum - Largest USMLE Community

A 19-year-old nulligravid woman comes to the emergency department because of severe left lower quadrant pain. She has been noticing this pain intermittently for the past 3 days, but this afternoon it became persistent and severe and was accompanied by nausea and vomiting. Examination shows left lower quadrant tenderness and a tender left adnexal mass. Urine hCG is negative. Pelvic ultrasound shows a 7 cm left ovarian complex mass. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. Expectant management
B. Follow-up ultrasound in 6 weeks
C. Intravenous antibiotics
D. Laparoscopy
E. Oophorectomy

d? laparoscopy to remove the mass- complex sounds suspicious could be dermoid/ teratoma
oopherectomy not preferred in view of age and nulliparity.

D. Laparoscopy

D.