07-08-2008, 08:44 AM
A 36-year-old woman with a 15-year history of headaches comes to the office for a follow-up visit. Initially, she had moderate to severe bilateral pulsatile, frontal headaches accompanied by nausea, light and noise sensitivity, and occasional vomiting. They occurred one to two times each month and lasted 24 to 36 hours. In the last 2 years, she has developed a daily mild to moderate bilateral frontal headache that is present when she awakens and lasts all day. Approximately once per week she has a headache that is similar to her previous episodic headaches but less severe. She takes amitriptyline, 75 mg at bedtime, as a prophylactic agent. She takes acetaminophen/caffeine/butalbital, 4 tablets/d, and rizatriptan, 10 to 20 mg, one to two days per week for more severe headaches. Physical and neurologic examinations are normal.
What is the most appropriate next step in managing this patients headache disorder?
A. Discontinue amitriptyline and initiate treatment with divalproex sodium.
B. Discontinue acetaminophen/caffeine/butalbital.
C. Discontinue rizatriptan.
D. Increase dose of amitriptyline
6
A 65-year-old man has weakness and wasting of his left hand and muscle twitching involving his arms
and thighs. The symptoms have progressed over 5 months. There is no associated pain or paresthesia. Neurologic examination reveals severe weakness and atrophy of the left thenar and hypothenar muscles, and mild weakness of left foot dorsiflexion. Muscle stretch reflexes are hyperactive and symmetric. Sensation is normal. Magnetic resonance imaging of the cervical spine was obtained by an orthopedic surgeon 2 weeks earlier and is normal.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?
A. Muscle biopsy
B. Nerve biopsy
C. Serum creatine kinase determination
D. Electromyography
E. Genetic testing
What is the most appropriate next step in managing this patients headache disorder?
A. Discontinue amitriptyline and initiate treatment with divalproex sodium.
B. Discontinue acetaminophen/caffeine/butalbital.
C. Discontinue rizatriptan.
D. Increase dose of amitriptyline
6
A 65-year-old man has weakness and wasting of his left hand and muscle twitching involving his arms
and thighs. The symptoms have progressed over 5 months. There is no associated pain or paresthesia. Neurologic examination reveals severe weakness and atrophy of the left thenar and hypothenar muscles, and mild weakness of left foot dorsiflexion. Muscle stretch reflexes are hyperactive and symmetric. Sensation is normal. Magnetic resonance imaging of the cervical spine was obtained by an orthopedic surgeon 2 weeks earlier and is normal.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?
A. Muscle biopsy
B. Nerve biopsy
C. Serum creatine kinase determination
D. Electromyography
E. Genetic testing