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1. 28 yrs old F with preeclampsia, is 38 wks pregnant, fetus HR is 145. cervix is 3 cm dilated. what is best management?
2. same pt, if fetal HR shows 170 or 90, with dialted cervix, does ya management change?
3. what if pt is 34 wks, with pre-eclampsia, no fetal distress, no cervial dilation..
4. 34 wks old fetus, with pre-eclampsia, late decelearation present. management?

for all 4 questions choices are : a. IV oxytocin
b. MGso4
c. IM glucocorticoid
d. c-section
e. wait and observe
f.ultrasound
g. terabutaline.
plz explain ya ans. tnx.

1: a
2: d
3: e
4: d

_ Q1: AAA

_ Q2: DDD

_ Q3: CCC

_ Q4: DDD

I agree with lazygenius

lazygeninus u are right, if the fetal under nodistress then induce delivery by oxytocin, specially caz cervix has started to dilate gradually. if fetal distress is seen, then must deliver asap via c-section.

how c section
strange questions and strange answers
the goal in preeclamsia is to bring down blood pressure
why c section
strange for me extremely

hey macrophage where did u bring these qs from
if the baby is jeopardized due to hypertension then why ru going for section why ru not controlling the blood pressure
ok yes if the baby has some comorbid condition or the mother
i dnt know
how

adrenaline these are from kaplan. and if the u see decelaration in fetus that means uteroplacental insuff, meaning fetus is developing hypoxia. it will take longer to control BP in pt and can be very harmful to fetus, so according to beckman ob book, they say have to deliver baby, now vaginal delivery will take longer and u dont have time to wait so c-section becomes best option.

i am telling u what i saw in kaplan and beckman. so if u dont think its right, i dont know what to tell u.

thanks macrophagearetheshit, nice qs .

ok thnx