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A 22-year-old female presents to the ED with an overdose.
She has a history of depression, and there were
empty bottles found at her bedside. The bottles had
contained clonazepam (a benzodiazepine) and nortriptyline
(a tricyclic). The patient is unconscious with
diminished breathing and is unable to protect her own
airway.
The BEST next step is to:
A) Intubate the patient.
B) Begin gastric lavage and administer charcoal.
C) Administer flumazenil, a benzodiazepine antagonist,
to awaken her and improve her respirations.
D) Administer bicarbonate.
E) None of the above.

follow the rule.....intubate the patient.

You intubate the patient and she is noted to be somewhat
hypotensive (70/40) with a pulse of 130. This
condition does not respond to a fluid challenge.
The pressor of choice in this patient is:
A) Dopamine.
B) Dobutamine.
C) Norepinephrine.
D) Epinephrine.
E) Vasopressin.

hi zkadhem

give her dopamine please.
hi stefam78 how ru?

i am good

think again zkadhem..ques is little tricky

sorry not dopamine......
This is not related to the heart...
I will give her a shot of epinephrin..where is the rest of the question?please

The correct answer is C. Norepinephrine is the drug
of choice as a pressor agent in tricyclic overdoses.
This is because beta agonists may worsen hypotension
and norepinephrine is a œpure alpha agonist. Answer
A is incorrect because dopamine may worsen hypotension
in this situation. Answer B is also incorrect
because dobutamine is a peripheral vasodilator and
may actually worsen hypotension. Of course, the hypotensive
patient with a tricyclic overdose should also
receive an adequate volume of IV fluids.

next ques is hp-2

thx....

ur wc