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A 26-year-old primigravid woman at 38 weeks' gestation is admitted to the hospital because she is in labor; contractions occur every 3 minutes and last 60 seconds. The patient's prenatal course has been uncomplicated. Labor curve is now normal and fetal heart rate tracing shows good variability with an occasional mild deceleration. Her patient chart indicates that a previous physician thought she might have a platypellic pelvis. She is now 10-cm dilated. The fetus is at +1 station with a mentum-anterior face presentation. Which of the following is the most appropriate management at this time?

A) Deliver the child vaginally after manually rotating the fetus to a mentum-posterior presentation
B) Deliver the child vaginally with the aid of forceps
C) Deliver the child vaginally with the aid of vacuum extraction
D) Deliver the child vaginally without intervention
E) Deliver the child via emergency cesarean delivery

i had gone for eee

but a long prev discussion in the forum said shd be bbbb

i still stick with eee....

d.............

Yeah, I prefer D too,

The question says the patient is in labor, but doesn't mention how long in the stage II,
We may just wait and see first.

DDD