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A 40-year-old man has erectile dysfunction. He is noted to have hyperprolactinemia (prolactin of 400 g/L). On MRI a macroadenoma with supersellar extension is found. Which of the following is the best course of therapy for the patient

A.
Medical therapy with bromocriptine
B.
Transsphenoidal surgery
C.
Transfrontal surgery
D.
Medical therapy with somatostatin agonist
E.
Thyroxine

b?

A)
Pituitary macroadenomas often require surgical intervention for cure(Transsphenoidal route preferred)
The exceptions to this rule are the macroprolactinomas, which usually have an excellent response to medical therapy wth dopaminergic agonists. The most frequently employed medications include bromocriptine n cabergoline.

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Can you please post all your basic questions under one thread only....instead of typing up basic questions all over usmle forum.....its kind of distracting to look for other posts amidst all these single questions posts....Thanks.

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