62 year old woman comes to dr office with bloating and cramping abdominal pain and intermittent diarrhea over the pass 5 years. Her symptoms have increased over the past month since she started a new diet that emphasized yougurt and cottage cheese as low-fat source of cacium and protein. vitals signs are normal. Abd exam shows diffuse ternderness to palpitation with no rebound tenderness; there are no masses or organomegaly. Bowel sounds are increased. Test of the stool for occult blood is negative. Which of the following is best explanation for this patient's diarrhea?
-impaired intestinal motility
-inflammatory process
-malabsorption
-secretory process
Please help with the right answer and and explanation...thank you.
52 year womans comes to dr's office b/c of decreased libido. her symptoms began months a go, after she underwent a total abd hysterectomy and bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy for leiomyomata uteri and manorrhagia. she began taking hormone replacement therapy with conjugated estrogen therapy since the operation. Examination shows moist, rugated vagina. Which of the following is the most likely cause of these findings?
decreased androgens
decreased estrogens
decreased FSH
decreased LH
decreased progesterone
decreased prolactin
increased androgens
increased estrogens
increased FSH
increased LH
increased progesterone
increased prolactin
Suggestion of your answers and explanations will be appreciated.....
thin vaginal secretion is estrogen dependent and thick vaginal secretion is progesterone dependent most likely the ans is she is taking estrogen only therapy.
for above q its sounds like it is irriable bowel syndrome , i hope im not wrong and answer should be A
6 year old boy brought to Dr. office by his mother b/c of progressive visual loss over the past year. Over the past 2 years, he has had deterioration of his hearing, speech, writing and intellectual performance. His maternal uncle had similar symptoms. Visual acuity is 20/200 bilaterally. Fundoscopic exam shows optic atrophy. His hearing is markedly impaired. There is weakness and spasticity of all extremities. Deep tendon reflexes are extremely hyperactive. Babinsky sign is present bilaterally. On mental status exam, he is not oriented to place, year, month or the names of his siblings. MRI of the brain shows marked symmetric white matter disease involving all lobes. Diagnostic studies are most likely to show which of the following?
- abnormal decreased serum cholesterol levels
- Acanthocytes on blood smear
- An excess of very long chain fatty acids
- normal nerve conduction studies
- vitamin E deficiency
Your suggestion for right answer and explanation will be appreciated again....
Is it lactose intolerance ???
last q i think its
an excess of very long chain fatty acid
and dx is adrenoleukodystrophy
which begin at 4-15 years old, xlinked recessive all males inheretid, due to myelin defieciency
dt loss of protien resp for there transmission
Sx progressive loss of vision,hearing,sensation,with spasticity,ataxia,seziures,hypoadrenalism, hypopigmentation.
Dx long chain fatty acid increase serum level
GL
malabsortion secondary to failure to absorb lactose. I am a retired Us born and educsated physician who tutors one on one IMGS in Atlanta, Ga. 404-909-6214 aaron hurowitz do
1- at 1st i thought it's decreased androgen, but as i was reading through the net, i found that RCT in women with bilateral oopherectomy who has recieved androgen compared to those who recieved placebo shows minimal increase in sexual desire, and when that happened androgen level was higher than normal when compared to pre menopausal women.
and the main factor was androgen/estrogen ratio, so i think increase estrogen could be the more correct answer.
2- secretory process as the case talks about lactose intolerance.
3- increased level of very long chain
Increased level of very LCFA presents at birth or later?