USMLE Forum - Largest USMLE Community

A 24-year-old man is hospitalized for treatment of a posterior dislocation of the
right knee sustained in a motorcycle collision. Six hours after closed reduction,
previously present distal pulses in his foot are absent, but the foot has remained
warm. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?


A) Elevation of the limb and observation for 24hours

B) Nitroprusside therapy

C) Sympathetic block

D) Femoral arteriography

E) Embolectomy with a Fogarty catheter through aproximal arteriotomy

what is it?

e.

Femoral Arteriography to localize the obstruction followed by embolectomy

thanks guys.

ans please neem!

sorry for imcomplete ans

continue

followed by embolectomy if there is any obstruction if not than arteriography will explain futher if there is any damage which need sugery.

so u mean fem arteriogram would be the first step to proceed!!

yes because we dont know wether this is thrombus, post reduction vessel damage or even compartment $.

ok,and the source of the method please and i appreciate your take on this Dr Bloom,thank you

i dont have any exact sorce for this exact situation but i leared some principles form UW Q bank online afer finishing it online.
I may be wrong but that the way i thin for this perticular case.