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Full Version: Repro 3 - ara111
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A 24-year-old bartender returning from Panama presents to the clinic because of a painful
penile lesion that appeared about 1 week after having unprotected sex with a new female partner. On examination the ulcer is 1.5 cm in diameter with an erythematous base and clearly covered with a yellow purulent exudate and bleeds when scraped. Gram stain of the exudates shows gram-negative rods in chains in a school-of-fi sh appearance. Otherwise, examination is notable only for tender inguinal lymphadenopathy. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment at this time?
(A) A 10-day course of oral acyclovir
(B) Highly active retroviral therapy until the lesion resolves
© Nystatin powder to the lesion daily for at least 1 week
(D) One high dose of intramuscular penicillin G
(E) One high dose of oral azithromycin
@ mcdonalds, there was a typo in the other one
Another one went to Panama....Now I know where am I going to go for my next vacations Smile
EE...H. ducreyi
@mcdonalds: take your step 1 first Smile
sorryy meant where NOT to go, I am apologize everybody..
EEEE......chancroid..trt.azithromycin, erythro...., ciprofloxacin
h.ducreyi shows school of fish appearace on gram stain

http://www.uptodate.com/patients/content...kHk0fju3j0

http://std.about.com/od/treatment/f/chanctreatfaq.htm
EEEEEEEEE
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