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Full Version: Archer review Medicine Question 191 - misshyd
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A 64 year old woman is evaluated in the emergency room for acute development of double vision and droopy left eyelid. She denies any fever or headache. Her past medical history is significant for diabetes mellitus and hypertension. On physical examination, she is afebrile and her blood pressure 132/88 mm Hg. Head and neck examination reveals ptosis of the left eyelid. Pupillary light reflex is intact . She can not adduct her left eye past the midline. The left eye is deviated downwards and laterally as shown in the picture below. There is no sensory loss on her face and the function of her other facial muscles are intact. Power is normal in all her extremities and deep tendon reflexes are intact. Which of the following is the most likely cause of her symptoms?
image : http://usmlestep3blog.com/2011/07/13/que...-week-238/

Which of the following is the most likely cause of her symptoms?

A) Ophthalmoplegic migraine

B) Diabetic Mono-neuropathy

C) Posterior communicating artery aneurysm

D) Weber syndrome

E) Lateral medullary syndrome

Which of the following is the most likely eventual outcome of her condition?

A) Sub-arachnoid hemorrhage
B) Spontaneous resolution
C) Cerebellar ataxia
D) Persistent visual deficits
E) Aneurysmal Rupture
B) Diabetic Mono-neuropathy
Compression palsy shud give pupillary dilation first so i'll go with B

B) Spontaneous resolution
Cranial mononeuropathy are more likely to resolve when compared to peripheral or autonomic neuropathy.Latter have usually waxing and waning course so i''l go with B

Let's see what other have to say...
B, D
,,
why is this not D and C....
b
d
b.
b.
why is not this C and A , how can you rule out post communicating aneurysm?

because for Q190, many ppl chose choice D to rule out posterior aneurysm?

please explain your answers and we can discuss

thanks
here is Q190, how is this different? http://www.usmleforum.com/showthread.php?tid=598796
b and b
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