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25>A 20-year-old female presents with a two day history of dysuria and
increased urinary frequency. She states that she was recently married and
was not sexually active prior to the marriage. Physical exam reveals a
temperature of 100.7 °F with normal vital signs. Gynecological exam reveals
no evidence of discharge, vaginitis, or cervicitis. Urinalysis reveals 14
white blood cells per high-powered field with many gram-negative rods.
The most appropriate therapy would be
A. ampicillin
B. ceftriaxone
C. fluconazole
D. gentamicin
E. metronidazole

A.

why not gentamicin?

bcos its a simple UTI.. so need for parenteral.. may be i am wrong

bcos its a simple UTI.. so no need for parenteral.. may be i am wrong

i agree.uncomplicated UTI is treated with cotrimoxazole 2nd option is ampicillin

I agree too. Keep in mind that aminoglycosides are not orally given, which is very inconvinient. Ampicillin is the best choice here.

gram negative rods?ampicillin?

correct ampicillin.we dont give IV drugs for UTI.

isn't it ampicillin use only for gram-negative bacilli and gram positive?