09-13-2014, 03:13 PM
A 27-year-old woman comes to the office because of a 1-year history of constant, dull pressure in her lower abdomen that worsens during intercourse and menses. She says her menses occur every 28 days and last for 4 days; her last menstrual period was 2 weeks ago. She does not have dysmenorrhea or menorrhagia. Medical history is otherwise unremarkable. She takes an oral contraceptive. Vital signs are normal. Uterine size on bimanual examination is consistent with a 14-week gestation with irregular contour at the fundus. No adnexal masses are palpated. Results of laboratory studies are within the reference ranges, and serum β-hCG concentration is negative. Which of the following is the most appropriate diagnostic study of the pelvis at this time?
A) CT scan
B) Hysterosalpingography
C) MRI
D) Sonohysterography
E) Ultrasonography
most folks agree, US isthe answ here.what is the difference btw US and sonohystrography.thanks a lot
A) CT scan
B) Hysterosalpingography
C) MRI
D) Sonohysterography
E) Ultrasonography
most folks agree, US isthe answ here.what is the difference btw US and sonohystrography.thanks a lot