USMLE Forum - Largest USMLE Community

A 65 y/o man comes to the emergency department due to dizziness, dysarthria, and bilateral limb ataxia. His symptoms have been steadily worsening over the last two weeks. He has no other medical problems and takes no medications. He has a 50-pack-year smoking history and does not use alcohol or illicit drugs. Chest X-ray shows a mass in his right lung. He is admitted to the hospital for evaluation, but his neurologic symptoms continue to progress. He dies several months later despite receiving appropriate treatment. Autopsy shows extensive cerebellar Purkinje cell degeneration. Which of the following best describes the etiology of this patient's neurologic condition?

A. Metastatic
B. Endocrine
C. Infectious
D. Autoimmune
E. Toxic
F. Vascular

D. thanks

great thank u

Dd

DD delayed response

Paraneoplastic Cerebellar Degeneration: atuoimmune destruction of Pukinje cells in the cerebellum

Thank you.