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+--- Thread: A 58-year-old woman comes to your office. She is c - a_antibody (/showthread.php?tid=204203)
A 58-year-old woman comes to your office. She is c - a_antibody - ArchivalUser - 07-22-2007
A 58-year-old woman comes to your office. She is currently in atrial fibrillation and is asymptomatic. Her rate is 70/min. She denies hypertension, diabetes, and congestive failure. There is no other past medical history. What is the most appropriate management of this patient?
(A) Warfarin and clopidogrel
(B) Heparin followed by warfarin
© Low-molecular-weight heparin
(D) Aspirin (325 mg) daily
(E) Warfarin to maintain an INR of 2 to
0 - ArchivalUser - 07-22-2007
D....lone A fib , no RF
hey antibody whats up.....
0 - ArchivalUser - 07-22-2007
and less than 60 yrs
0 - ArchivalUser - 07-22-2007
pt. is asymptomatic so agree with ronaldo
DDDDDDDDDDDD
0 - ArchivalUser - 07-22-2007
hi ronaldo.....how are u today?? these days i just hovering between kaplan notes and fisher's QS......... :
)
0 - ArchivalUser - 07-22-2007
if patient is symtomatic ............what is the next step??
0 - ArchivalUser - 07-22-2007
if symptomatic, cardiovert preceded by anticaugulation by warfarin for 3 months.
0 - ArchivalUser - 07-22-2007
yeap. ddddd is the correct ans