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good for those whos exam is near - rizowana - ArchivalUser - 09-19-2008
from my collection ultradocmansu's notes
#318956
ultradocmansu - 07/15/08 05:16
hi guys , i downloaded some high yield micro and immuno someone posted in the forum , since now i have to start clearing step 1 material from my computer and start loading step 2 stuff , i ll be uploading all this material here which ever is possible for me to upload.. jus pray that i might not need this material again
Characteristic Disease
1 Tb test is which type of hypersensitivity reaction? Type IV (delayed)
2 describe type II hypersensitivity Ab coats a target so that cells with Fc receptors (PMNs, monos, etc.)
3 ADCC falls into what type of hypersensitivity reaction? Type II
4 this type of hypersensitivity is due to circulting Ab-Ag complexes Type III
5 what is ELEK? test for toxin production for C. diptheriae
6 two ways to diagnose Cryptococcus neoformans meningitis India ink and latex agglutination test for Ag
7 this bug grows near S. aureus on blood agar H. influenzae
8 use of Thayer-Martin agar grows Neisseria from locations that have normal flora (i.e. genital tract)
9 diagnosis of meningococcal meningitis growth of N. meningitis from CSF on chocolate agar
10 owl's eye inclusions in the urine CMV infection
11 C. neoformans: urease (+) or (-)? urease positive
12 acute mastitis is associated with what life change? What bug? breast feeding, S. aureus
13 chronic mastitis is associated with what life change? What bug? perimenopause; no bugs (it is sterile, due to inspissated mucus)
14 pernicious anemia is associated with what HLA type? DR5
15 Chaga's disease is associated with megacolon, megaesophagus, and dilated cardiomyopathy
16 a positive tuberculin skin test means that a cell-mediated immune response has occurred (no Ab required!)
17 what does P. aeruginosa exotoxin A do? ADP-ribosylates (inhibits) EF-2, a GTP binding protein involved in protein synthesis
18 what does pertussis toxin do? ADP-ribosylates (inhibits) GTP-binding protein that inhibits adenylate cyclase, resulting in ?cAMP (turns the "off" off)
19 what does cholera toxin do? ADP-ribosylates (activates) GTP-binding protein that stimulates adenylate cyclase, resulting in ?cAMP (turns the "on" on)
20 etiologic agent that may be involved in membranous GN Hep B
21 multiple episodes of Neisseria meningitis suggests what immunologic defect? C6, C7, C8
22 cell-surface markers for B cells CD19, CD20, and CD21
23 cell-surface markers for T cells CD3 (along with CD4 or CD8)
24 cell-surface markers for NK cells CD56
25 two GU bugs that induce endocytosis Neisseria and Chlamydia
26 most likely bug to cause an epidemic of pediatric diarrhea Y. enterocolitica
27 ss + RNA virus that causes diarrhea and may have serious neurologic sequellae polio
28 what is the form of malaria that enters the body through the mosquito bite? sporozoite
29 schizontes live where? liver cells
30 1/3 of those with malaria will have what very severe sequellae? acute renal failure
31 describe blackwater fever hemolysis leading to black urine and renal damage (due to malaria)
32 rheumatoid arthritis is what type of hypersensitivity reaction? Type II
33 asthma and urticaria are examples of what type of hypersensitivity reaction? Type I
34 SLE and vasculitides are examples of what type of hypersensitivity reaction? Type III
35 most common parasitic infxn in the US cysticercosis
36 condyloma is caused by what virus? HPV
37 most common bug in acute bacterial prostatitis E. Coli
38 how does cholera do its dirty work? activates adenylate cyclase
39 paternity testing is based on genetic allotypes
40 definition of isotypes IgE, IgM, IgD, etc.
41 the crystalline core of eosinophils is composed of major basic protein
42 catalase +, gram + cocci that grows well on mannitol salt agar S. aureus
43 what type of vaccination do we give for measles? live virus (kids > 15 mo of age)
44 cells that express BOTH CD4 and CD8 are ____ _____ immature T cells
45 painful ulceration on the penis is most likely caused by H. ducreyi (chancroid)
46 microscopic findings in chancroid pleomorphic rods in "school of fish" pattern
47 polyarteritis nodosa is associated with what viral infection? Hep B
48 how does a superantigen work its magic? binds TCR variable region to MHC Class II to induce massive T cell activation
49 the name of the specific anti-treponemal test FTA-ABS
50 what agar is used to grow Legionella? buffered charcoal yeast extract
51 name some reportable infectious diseases MMR, AIDS, gonorrhea, Salmonella, Shigella, syphilis, TB, chickenpox, Hep A and B
52 triad of Wiscott-Aldrich syndrome purpura, eczema, recurrent bacterial infxn
53 patients with Wiscott-Aldrich are at increased risk for what cancer? NHL
54 spirochete with "Shephard's Crook" appearance Leptospira
55 gram stain and shape of Brucella gram (-) cocci
56 what type of sensitivity: wheal and flare reactions? Type I
57 what type of sensitivity: berylliosis? Type IV (delayed)
58 what type of sensitivity: Graves' disease? Type II
59 patient with chronic cough + tiny yeast in lungs Histo
60 stain used for fungi silver stain
61 another name for the acid-fast stain Ziehl-Neeson stain
62 catalase (-), coagulase (-), optochin sensitive gram (+) cocci w/ greenish discoloration on blood agar S. pneumo
63 sequence of events in the maturation of a B cell heavy chain gene rearrangement > cytoplasmic mu chains > light chain gene rearrangement > IgM on surface > IgG & IgM on surface
64 contaminated swimming pools often transmit what virus? adenovirus
65 major cause of diarrhea in kids under age 2 rotavirus
66 NADPH oxidase produces superoxide anions
67 myeloperoxidase produces H2O2 >>> HOCl
68 caused of upper lobe pneumonia with cavitation K. pneumo
69 type of pneumonia associated with artificial ventilation P. aeruginosa
70 mechanism of action of cycloheximide inhibits eukaryotic protein synthesis
71 primary opsonin in the C' system C3b
72 the electron transport system of bacteria is located in the bacterial plasma membrane
73 bacterial endocarditis in IV drug users is usually due to S. aureus
74 RBC-sized lung organisms that stain spherical or ovoid-shaped with silver stains PCP
75 chronic antral gastritis is associated with H. pylori
76 in dxing a UTI, you find that the nitrate dipstick is negative. What's the bug? Enterococcus (gut streptococci)
77 nitrate dipstick is positive for what bugs? all the gram (-) enterics - E. Coli, Klebsiella, Enterobacter, Pseudomonas
78 hepatitis type which is very dangerous in pregnant women Hep E
79 before mast cells can degraunulate due to allergen exposure and cause a type I hypersensitivity reaction, what must occur? sensitization - processing of Ag by APCs, production of IL4 by Th2 cells causing B cells to switch from IgM to IgE, IgE binds to surface of mast cells
80 what is the bug that carries and perpetuates Lyme disease? Ixodes tick
81 most prevalent form of mycobacterium disease in AIDS patients TB
82 levels of IgM in common variable immunodeficiency all Ig low (lack of plasma cells)
83 the numbers of B cells in common variable immunodeficiency are normal
84 the numbers of B cells in Bruton's agammaglobulinemia are low
85 the most common presentation for G6PD hemolysis in Africa is a child who has just eaten beans
86 in the body, where can Histo be found? intracellularly (not passed between people)
87 stain used for PCP silver stain
88 four bugs that take advantage of people with chronic granulomatous dz S. Aureus, S. Aspergillus, Nocardia, Salmonella (all are phagocytosed and not killed)
89 lack of C5 causes a susceptibility to what bug? Neisseria
90 defective chemotactic response predisposes to what type of infection? bacterial
91 the first three factors involved in the classical C' pathway C1, C4, C2
92 acute epidydimitis with orchitis is most often caused by N. gonorrhoeae
93 at-risk individuals for PCP include AIDS patients and premature infants
94 Chlamydia must live intracellularly because it cannot make its own ATP
95 S. aureus is a common pathogen of what part of the body? nasopharynx
96 When B cells undergo isotype switching, they require these two things IL-4, and interaction with T cells (CD40 on the B cell interacts with CD40L on the T cell
97 state the levels of IgG in hyper-IgM syndrome IgM high, eveything else low
98 defect in hyper-IgM syndrome CD40L on T cells causes B cells to fail to undergo isotype switching
99 a defect in IL-2 secretion puts patients at risk for what type of bugs? intracellular
100 the RNA virus "exception" that replicates in the nucleus orthomyxo (influenza)
101 the DNA virus "exception" that replicates in the cytoplasm pox
102 the triad of cutaneous hemorrhage, periventricular calcifications, and deafness suggests which of the TORCHES? CMV infection
103 most common cause of chronic meningitis TB
104 deficiency of what C' tends to produce an SLE-like syndrome? C4
105 The Ig profile for common variable immunodeficiency and X-linked agammaglobulinemia low IgM, IgG, IgA
106 through where does N. fowleri enter the brain? through the cribriform plate
107 during which phase of bacterial growth do spores form? stationary phase
108 triad of Wiscott-Aldrich syndrome eczema, thrombocytopenia, and repeated infections
109 transmission of Wiscott-Aldrich X-linked
110 a T lymphocyte with low affinity for MHC Class I turns into a CD8+ Tc lymphocyte
111 a T lymphocyte with low affinity for MHC Class II turns into a CD4+ Th lymphocyte
112 gram (-) septic shock is mediated by what part of the gram (-) membrane? Lipid A
113 the vaginas of prepubertal girls and postmenopausal women is colonized by bugs of the skin (e.g. Staph)
114 the vaginas of women of child-bearing age are colonized by lactobacillus, candida, and Strep
115 gastric cancer has been linked to what bug? H. pylori
116 population of cells responsible for DTH reaction CD4+ T cells
117 where does HSV2 hang out during the asx times of the disease? sacral ganglia
118 patients with Lyme arthritis commonly have what HLA association? HLA-DR4
119 the bugs that undergo natural transformation Haemophilus, Neisseria, Step, Helicobacter
120 virus associated with polyarteritis nodosa Hep B
121 what type of hypersensitivity is poison ivy exposure? DTH (Type IV)
122 name some type III hypersensitivity reactions SLE, glomerulonephritis
123 how to differentate common variable immunodeficiency from X-linked agammaglobulinemia in CVI, the B cell count is normal
124 at what age does common variable immunodeficiency often present? 2nd-3rd decades
125 when does ADA deficiency commonly present? early in life
126 the infectious form of Crypto encapsulated budding yeasts (it is a monomorphic fungus)
127 transmission form of Histo septate hyphae with micro- and macroconidia
128 type of streptococcus which can cause rash on palms and soles S. moniliformis ("rat-bite fever")
129 Ig used in the response against encapsulated bacteria IgG (especially subclass 2)
130 loss of MHC Class I expression would make cells invincible to killying by what type of T lymphocyte? CD8+ Tc lymphocyte
131 what is beta-2-microglobulin? a signalling molecule of MHC I
132 transmembrane protein of HIV Gp41
133 surface protein of HIV which may bind Ab Gp120
134 outer membranes exist in gram (-/+) bacteria -
135 toxin which ADP-ribosylates the Gs protein to permanently turn it on cholera toxin
136 toxin which ADP-riboxylates the Gi protein to permanently turn it off pertussis toxin
137 Blasto infection is acquired by inhalation of spores
138 live virus vaccines MMR, sabin polio, yellow fever
139 killed virus vaccines salk polio, rabies, rotavirus, flu, HepA/B
140 what blood component works in concert with Ab to clear encapsulated bacteria? C'
141 ADCC is used against what type of cell? host cell (not bacteria!)
142 what is a reagin? an immunogen that stimulates an IgE response
143 the immunogen in quinine-mediated hemolysis RBC+quinine (not just quinine because it cannot elicit a response by itself, which is the definition of an immunogen)
144 where do superAg bind? invariant region of beta chain of TCR and MHC Class II molecules of APCs
145 psoas abscess ("cold abscess") is associated with what bug? TB (tuberculous osteomyelitis)
146 what mechanism allows a B cell to express both IgD and IgM? alternative mRNA splicing
147 toxic metabolite that causes problems in SCID deoxyadenosine
148 which type of virus, in its infective form, can be diretly translated? ss (+) RNA
149 how is Lyme diagnosed in the lab? look for IgG or IgM Ab
150 acid-fast bugs that cause diarrhea in the immunocompromised Cryptosporidium and Isospora
151 what does a "western blot for HIV" actually look for? Ab to HIV Ag
152 B7 on an APC interacts with ___ on a T cell CD28
153 a genetic deficiency in ___ confers immunity to macrophage-tropic HIV CCR5, a chemokine receptor required for the entry of HIV into CD4 T cells
154 ringworm of the hair and scalp transmitted by cats and dogs Microsporum canis
155 most common cause of keratoconjunctivitis adenovirus
156 type of cell that produces IL-2 and IFN-g Th1 cells
157 type of cell that produces IL-1 and TNF-g macrophage
158 type of cell that secretes IL-4, IL-5 and IL-10 Th2 cells
159 most common route of transmission of C. jejuni poultry
160 a defect in NADPH oxidase causes chronic granulomatous disease
161 turns off the Gi protein via ADP-ribosylation B. pertussis
162 do Th2 cells recognize carrier or hapten in a vaccine? carrier
163 Graft-vs-host disease is mediated by CD8 Tc from the graft attacking the host
164 pathogenicity of Giardia is mediated by ventral sucking disc
165 germ tube formation is used to identify C. albicans
166 the RPR test is used for detection of T. pallidum antibody
167 how do we visualize T. pallidum? immunoflourescence staining (has replaced darkfield microscopy)
168 three important genera of acid-fast organisms Nocardia, Mycobacteria, Cryptosporidium
169 organisms that are not acid-fast stain ___ with acid-fast stain blue
170 the HIV pol gene codes for . RT and integrase
171 how does the P. aeruginosa exotoxin work? like diptheria toxin - ADP-ribosylates EF-2
172 bullous pemphigoid is a Type ___ hypersensitivity reaction II
173 RA is a Type ___ hypersensitivity reaction III
174 ABO incompatibility is a Type ___ hypersensitivity reaction II
175 Myasthenia gravis is a Type ___ hypersensitivity reaction II
176 serum sickness is a Type ___ hypersensitivity reaction III
177 erythema chronicum migrans usually affects what part of the body? groin, axilla, thigh
178 the toxin of P. aeruginosa is most similar to what other toxin? Diphtheria
179 what is the mechanism of diphtheria and pseudomonas toxins? ADP-ribosylate EF-2
180 what differentiates pseudomonas and diphtheria toxins? pseudomonas works in the liver, and diphtheria works on nerves and heart
181 patient living in the southwest who develops ARDS and dies hantavirus
182 animal that spreads hantavirus deer mouse
183 describe a patient with SSPE ataxic, optic atrophy, oligoclonal bands on tap, cerebral atrophy, early death
184 two most important chemotactic factors for neutrophils IL-8 and C5a
185 why are patients continually susceptible to reinfection with N. gonorrheae? changes in its antigenic coat
186 to determine the strain of S. aureus, what lab test should be done? bacteriophage sensitivity
187 a rash on hands and feet indicates tertiary syphilis, RMSF, or Coxsackie
188 stain used to diagnose PCP silver stain
189 a patient with Y. enterocolitica that secondarily develops arthritis has which type of hypersensitivity reaction? Type III
190 to what type of disease is a patient with Bruton's susceptible to? bacterial
191 cause of pinkeye S. pneumo
192 common cause of neonatal meningitis; present in mom's flora Listeria
193 make the dx: small intracellular yeast growing at RT as a mold, has hyphae with micro and macro-conidia histo
194 AIDS patient with multiple visual field deficits and decreased visual acuity - bug? CMV infection
195 underlying mechanism responsible for hypersensitivity to penicillin Ab against drug bound to RBC surface
196 abrupt loss of resistance to an abx in a bacteria is due to loss of a plasmid
197 the swelling of a bee sting is due to local vasodilation
198 immunization induces the proliferation of which type of T cell? Th cell
199 S. pyogenes is differentiated from the other types of beta-hemolytic strep by its sensitivity to bacitracin
200 CMV is most often seen in the immunocompromised
201 blood components involved in the Arthus reaction preformed Ab and C'
202 when does an Arthus rxn occur? reimmunization (e.g. tetanus booster)
203 coating of latex beads with __ and __ can be used to ID gram (+) cocci IgG and fibrinogen
204 where in the US is coccidio found in the soil? southwestern US
205 protective measles antibody is to what epitope on the measles virus surface? hemagglutinin
206 what type of organism tends to affect women with self-induced abortions? anaerobes (e.g. Clostridia)
207 normal Ab production but recurrent bacterial infections suggests a problem with what WBC? neutrophils
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0 - ArchivalUser - 09-20-2008
hi rizowana,
inshallah u will do v good in ur exam...dont worry
i m new to ds forum bt in ds little time...i hve seen ur active participation n good work which u do 4 others...i hve also seen dt a lot of people look upto u for help...dts v good....insha god will reward u for all ds...
best wishes
0 - ArchivalUser - 09-20-2008
it says that if u know some common labvalues then it will be very helpful for the real exam, as u dont have to click the lab value links again and again. time is short there. check this chart once a day until the exam. the more u remember the more will be helpful for u.
NORMAL LABORATORY VALUES
* = Included in the Biochemical Profile (SMA-12)
BLOOD PLASMA SERUM REFERENCE RANGE SI REFERENCE INTERVALS
* Alanine aminotransferase
(ALT, GPT at 30ÌŠC) 8-20 U/L 8-20 U/L
Amylase, serum 25-125 U/L 25-125 U/L
* Aspartate aminotransferase
(AST, GOT at 30ÌŠC) 8-20 U/L 8-20 U/L
Bilirubin, serum (adult) Total // Direct 0.1-1.0 mg/dL // 0.0-0.3 mg/dL 2-17 μmol/L // 0-5 μmol/L
* Calcium, serum (Total) 8.4-10.2 mg/dL 2.1-2.8 mmol/L
Cholesterol, serum < 200 mg/dL < 5.2 mmol/L
Cortisol, serum 0800 h: 5-23 μg/dL // 1600 h: 3-15 μg/dL 138-635 nmol/L // 82-413 nmol/L
2000 h: < 50% of 0800 h Fraction of 0800 h: < 0.50
Creatine kinase, serum (at 30ÌŠC) ambulatory Male: 25-90 U/L 25-90 U/L
Female: 10-70 U/L 10-70 U/L
* Creatinine, serum 0.6-1.2 mg/dL 53-106 μmol/L
Electrolytes, serum
Sodium 135-145 mEq/L 136-145 mmol/L
Chloride 95-105 mEq/L 95-105 mmol/L
* Potassium 3.5-5.0 mEq/L 3.5-5.0 mmol/L
Bicarbonate 22-28 mEq/L 22-28 mmol/L
Magnesium (mg 2+) 1.5-2.0 mEq/L 1.5-2.0 mmol/L
Estriol (E3) total, serum (in pregnancy)
24-28 wks // 32-36 wks 30-170 ng/mL // 60-280 ng/mL 104-590 // 208-970 nmol/L
28-32 wks // 36-40 wks 40-220 ng/mL // 80-350 ng/mL 140-760 // 280-1210 nmol/L
Ferritin, serum Male: 15-200 ng/mL 15-200 μg/L
Female: 12-150 ng/mL 12-150 μg/L
Follicle-stimulating hormone, serum/plasma Male: 4-25 mIU/mL 4-25 U/L
Female:
premenopause 4-30 mIU/mL 4-30 U/L
midcycle peak 10-90 mIU/mL 10-90 U/L
postmenopause 40-250 mIU/mL 40-250 U/L
Gases, arterial blood (room air)
pH 7.35-7.45 [H+] 36-44 nmol/L
PCO2 33-45 mm Hg 4.4-5.9 kPa
PO2 75-105 mm Hg 10.0-14.0 kPa
* Glucose, serum Fasting: 70-110 mg/dL 3.8-6.1 mmol / L
2-h postprandial: < 120 mg/dL < 6.6 mmol/L
Growth hormone - arginine stimulation Fasting: < 5 ng/mL < 5 μg/L
provocative stimuli: 7 ng/mL > 7 μg/L
Immunoglobulins, serum
IgA 76-390 mg/dL 0.76-3.90 g/L
IgE 0-380 IU/mL 0-380 kIU/mL
IgG 650-1500 mg/dL 6.5-15 g/L
IgM 40-345 mg/dL 0.4-3.45 g/L
Iron 50-170 μg/dL 9-30 μmol/L
Lactate dehydrogenase, serum 45-90 U/L 45-90 U/L
Luteinizing hormone, serum/plasma Male: 6-23 mIU/mL 6-23 U/L
Female:
follicular phase 5-30 mIU/mL 5-30 U/L
midcycle 75-150 mIU/mL 75-150 U/L
postmenopause 30-200 mIU/mL 30-200 U/L
Osmolality, serum 275-295 mOsmol/kg 275-295 mOsmol/kg
Parathyroid hormone, serum, N-terminal 230-630 pg/mL 230-630 ng/L
* Phosphatase (alkaline), serum (p-NPP at 30ÌŠC) 20-70 U/L 20-70 U/L
* Phosphorus (inorganic), serum 3.0-4.5 mg/dL 1.0-1.5 mmol/L
Prolactin, serum (hPRL) < 20 ng/mL < 20 μg/L
* Proteins, serum
Total (recumbent) 6.0-7.8 g/dL 60-78 g/L
Albumin 3.5-5.5 g/dL 35-55 g/L
Globulins 2.3-3.5 g/dL 23-35 g/L
Thyroid-stimulating hormone, serum or plasma 0.5-5.0 μU/mL 0.5-5.0 mU/L
Thyroidal iodine (123 I) uptake 8-30% of administered dose/24 h 0.08-0.30/24 h
Thyroxine (T4 ), serum 5-12 μg/dL 64-155 nmol/L
Triglycerides, serum 35-160 mg/dL 0.4-1.81 mmol/L
Triiodothyronine (T3 ), serum (RIA) 115-190 ng/dL 1.8-2.9 nmol/L
Triiodothyronine (T3 ) resin uptake 25-35% 0.25-0.35
* Urea nitrogen, serum (BUN) 7-18 mg/dL 1.2-3.0 mmol urea/L
* Uric acid, serum 3.0-8.2 mg/dL 0.18-0.48 mmol/L
CEREBROSPINAL FLUID
Cell count 0-5 cells/mm3 0-5 x 106/L
Chloride 118-132 mEq/L 118-132 mmol/L
Gamma globulin 3-12% total proteins 0.03-0.12
Glucose 40-70 mg/dL 2.2-3.9 mmol/L
Pressure 70-180 mm H2O 70-180 mm H2O
Proteins, total < 40 mg/dL < 0.40 g/L
HEMATOLOGIC
Bleeding time (template) 2-7 minutes 2-7 minutes
Erythrocyte count Male: 4.3-5.9 million/mm3 4.3-5.9 x 1012/L
Female: 3.5-5.5 million/mm3 3.5-5.5 x 1012/L
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (Westergren) Male: 0-15 mm/h 0-15 mm/h
Female: 0-20 mm/h 0-20 mm/h
Hematocrit Male: 41-53% 0.41-0.53
Female: 36-46% 0.36-0.46
Hemoglobin A1C < 6% < 0.06%
Hemoglobin, blood Male: 13.5-17.5 g/dL 2.09-2.71 mmol/L
Female: 12.0-16.0 g/dL 1.86-2.48 mmol/L
Hemoglobin, plasma 1-4 mg/dL 0.16-0.62 μmol/L
Leukocyte count and differential
Leukocyte count 4500-11,000/mm3 4.5-11.0 x 109/L
Segmented neutrophils 54-62% 0.54-0.62
Band forms 3-5% 0.03-0.05
Eosinophils 1-3% 0.01-0.03
Basophils 0-0.75% 0-0.0075
Lymphocytes 25-33% 0.25-0.33
Monocytes 3-7% 0.03-0.07
Mean corpuscular hemoglobin 25.4-34.6 pg/cell 0.39-0.54 fmol/cell
Mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration 31-36% Hb/cell 4.81-5.58 mmol Hb/L
Mean corpuscular volume .80-100 μm3 80-100 fl
Partial thromboplastin time (activated) 25-40 seconds 25-40 seconds
Platelet count 150,000-400,000/mm3 150-400 x 109/L
Prothrombin time 11-15 seconds 11-15 seconds
Reticulocyte count 0.5-1.5% of red cells 0.005-0.015
Thrombin time < 2 seconds deviation from control < 2 seconds deviation from control
Volume
Plasma Male: 25-43 mL/kg 0.025-0.043 L/kg
Female: 28-45 mL/kg 0.028-0.045 L/kg
Red cell Male: 20-36 mL/kg 0.020-0.036 L/kg
Female: 19-31 mL/kg 0.019-0.031 L/kg
SWEAT
Chloride 0-35 mmol/L 0-35 mmol/L
URINE
Calcium 100-300 mg/24 h 2.5-7.5 mmol/24 h
Chloride Varies with intake Varies with intake
Creatinine clearance Male: 97-137 mL/min
Female: 88-128 mL/min
Estriol, total (in pregnancy)
30 wks 6-18 mg/24 h 21-62 μmol/24 h
35 wks 9-28 mg/24 h 31-97 μmol/24 h
40 wks 13-42 mg/24 h 45-146 μmol/24 h
17-Hydroxycorticosteroids Male: 3.0-10.0 mg/24 h 8.2-27.6 μmol/24 h
Female: 2.0-8.0 mg/24 h 5.5-22.0 μmol/24 h
17-Ketosteroids, total Male: 8-20 mg/24 h 28-70 μmol/24 h
Female: 6-15 mg/24 h 21-52 μmol/24 h
Osmolality 50-1400 mOsmol/kg
Oxalate 8-40 μg/mL 90-445 μmol/L
Potassium Varies with diet Varies with diet
Proteins, total < 150 mg/24 h < 0.15 g/24 h
Sodium Varies with diet Varies with diet
Uric acid Varies with diet Varies with diet
0 - ArchivalUser - 09-20-2008
x-linked recessive disorder
Mnemonic : LG Home Deck is Kinky like a small-x Brutally Hunt With Fabry™s Colour Granules Test
L-Lesch-Nyhan syndromeG-G6pd deficiency
H-Hemophilia A&B
Kinky-Menky™s Kinky hair syndrome
Small-x: X linked recessive disorders
Brut- Bruton™s Agammaglobulinemia
Hunt-Hunter™s syndrome
W-Wiskott Aldrich Syndrome
Fabry™s- Fabry™s disease
Colour-Colour blindness
Granules-Chronic granulomatous disorder
Test-Testicular Feminisation Syndrome
Some books give Fragile X syndrome is XLD and some XLR
So those who support it as XLR u can add 'Fragile Kinky ' or 'kinky fragile ' in the mnemonic
Kaplan Goes with XLD
So I guess we need to go with it.And thats why I didnt add it for sure.
0 - ArchivalUser - 09-20-2008
urine color and disease
RED = McKardel's
BURNED SUGAR = MAPLE SYRUP DISEASE
BURGUNDY = WINE PORT DISEASE
portwine on standing = acute intermittent porphyria (window sill test)
portwine urine upon passing= CUTANEA tarda
orange sand in diapers= Lesch Nyhan
urine turns black upon standing = Alkaptanuria
Red urine in the morning =PNH
0 - ArchivalUser - 09-20-2008
To our dear RIZOWANA!
TNANK YOU!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!
(from all of us, from the hardworking people around the world)
0 - ArchivalUser - 09-20-2008
thanx a lot rizowana...i def need these for my exam next week...thanx again
0 - ArchivalUser - 09-20-2008
HY Q
solve this qs before u go to take the test.
) digoxin toxicity in old age is due to?
2) whats the 2nd messenger during hemorrhagic shock?
3) patient in ER has MI, what tx? a) nitroglycerine b) beta blocker c) digoxin
4) patient has kidney stones, how do u treat him? a) mannitorl, b) furosemide, c) spironolactone, d) hydrochlorthiazide, e) indapamide?
5) stone in ureter, what happens to gfr?
6) dopamine affects what neurotransmitter? epi? ne?
7) hematology: if po is 260, pco2 is 55, and Hb is 15, whats the p50?
8) factor 2 deficiency causes problem in liver, heart, lung, or breast?
9) what drug is given post-mi? aspirin?!?
10) if sensation from the face is lost and CN5 innervation lost, is it ipsilateral or contralateral?
11) what artery affected in upper quadratinopia?
12) tumor anterior to temporal fossa affects what?
13) case of opiod overdose, were asking for antidote , no option of naloxone or naltrexone, so would you opt for buprenorphine? that was in the answer choices.
14) pic of eyes , with left eye which couldn™t look to right .were asking for the defect?!?
15) women marathon runner, has tibial fracture - what hormone will be deficient in this patient?!?!?
16) best treatment option for basal cell carcinoma?
17) child's hand was put in a cast, they removed it to see the skin was scrumbled and wrinkled up, what layer of skin affected?
18) boy has deficiency in skull mineralization, what is affected? a) fibrillin b) chondroiin c) collagen d) hep sulfate
19) man with medial malleolus fracture asking which tendon would be lesioned
20) a mass with submucosa, mucosa, and mucosal layer intact.. is it a polyp?!?
0 - ArchivalUser - 09-20-2008
1.DERMA
2.CNS TUMORS
3.KNOW THE EFFECT OF VARIOUS RESPO DISEASES ON FEV1,FVC,TLC,INSIDE OUT
4.KNOW THE CONCEPTS OF GFR,FF N RPF,ALDOSTERONE N RENIN IN VARIOUS DISEASES N STATES
5.DO LOOK ALL GRAPHS REALLY WELL(IN EXAM U DO GET GRAPHS,MAKE SURE U KNOW THE CONCEPTS)
6.COAGULATIVE DISORDERS,U SHULD KNOW HOW TO DIFFERENTIATE BW EACH OF THOSE
7.VALVULAR HEART DISEASES KNOW THEM WELL(2-3 QS ARE ALWAYS THERE)
8.VITAMINS YES THEY R V IMP
9.SOME IMP TUMORS FROM WCH U WILL DEF GET THE QS
*VON-RECKHLING HAUSENS DISEASE
*TUBEROUS SCLEROSIS
*OSLER-WEBER RENDU DISEASE
*NF-2
*STURGE WEBER SYNDROME
*VHL
10.KNOW GENERAL NEOPLASIA CHAPTER REALLY WELL,THEY ASK THNGS RELATING TO A PARTICULAR CANCER CAUSES N PREVENTION
0 - ArchivalUser - 09-20-2008
whats the 2nd messenger during hemorrhagic shock?
cGMP by nitric oxide ??
hello sharp ones please contribute