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Modified roziwan's good for those whose exam i - youmust - ArchivalUser - 10-23-2008
near--------------made it more readable
Characteristic Disease
1. Tb test is which type of hypersensitivity reaction?
Type IV (delayed)
2. describe type II hypersensitivity
Ab coats a target so that cells with Fc receptors (PMNs, monos, etc.)
3. ADCC falls into what type of hypersensitivity reaction?
Type II
4.which type of hypersensitivity is due to circulting Ab-Ag complexes
Type III
5. What is ELEK?
test for toxin production for C. diptheriae
6. two ways to diagnose Cryptococcus neoformans meningitis
India ink and latex agglutination test for Ag
7. Which bug grows near S. aureus on blood agar
H. influenzae
8. Use of Thayer-Martin agar
grows Neisseria
9. diagnosis of meningococcal meningitis
growth of N. meningitis from CSF on chocolate agar
10. owl's eye inclusions in the urine
CMV infection
11. C. neoformans: urease (+) or (-)?
urease positive
12. acute mastitis is associated with what life change? What bug?
breast feeding, S. aureus
13. chronic mastitis is associated with what life change? What bug?
perimenopause; no bugs (it is sterile, due to inspissated mucus)
14. pernicious anemia is associated with what HLA type?
DR5
15.Chaga's disease is associated with
megacolon, megaesophagus, and dilated cardiomyopathy
16. a positive tuberculin skin test means that
a cell-mediated immune response has occurred (no Ab required!)
17 what does P. aeruginosa exotoxin A do?
ADP-ribosylates (inhibits) EF-2, a GTP binding protein involved in protein synthesis
18. what does pertussis toxin do?
ADP-ribosylates (inhibits) GTP-binding protein(Gi) that inhibits adenylate cyclase, resulting in dec. cAMP (turns the "off" off)
19. what does cholera toxin do?
ADP-ribosylates (activates) GTP-binding protein(Gs) that stimulates adenylate cyclase, resulting in inc.cAMP (turns the "on" on)
20.Which viral etiologic agent are involved in membranous GN & MPGN respectively
Hep B(spike &dome, sub epithelial) and Hep C (tram&track ,sub endothelial)
21. multiple episodes of Neisseria meningitis suggests what immunologic defect?
C6, C7, C8
22. cell-surface markers for B cells
CD19, CD20, and CD21
23. cell-surface markers for T cells
CD3 (along with CD4 or CD8)
24. cell-surface markers for NK cells
CD56
25. two GU bugs that induce endocytosis
Neisseria and Chlamydia
26. most likely bug to cause an epidemic of pediatric diarrhea
Y. enterocolitica
27. ss + RNA virus that causes diarrhea and may have serious neurologic sequel polio
28. what is the form of malaria that enters the body through the mosquito bite? sporozoite
29. schizontes live where?
liver cells
30. 1/3 of those with malaria will have what very severe sequel?
acute renal failure
31. describe blackwater fever
hemolysis leading to black urine and renal damage (due to malaria)
32. rheumatoid arthritis is what type of hypersensitivity reaction?
Type II
33. asthma and urticaria are examples of what type of hypersensitivity reaction? Type I
34. SLE and vasculitides are examples of what type of hypersensitivity reaction?
Type III
35. most common parasitic infxn in the US
cysticercosis
36. condyloma is caused by what virus?
HPV
37.most common bug in acute bacterial prostatitis
E. Coli
38. how does cholera do its dirty work?
activates adenylate cyclase
39. paternity testing is based on
genetic allotypes
40. definition of isotypes
IgE, IgM, IgD, etc.
41. the crystalline core of eosinophils is composed of
major basic protein
42. catalase +, gram + cocci that grows well on mannitol salt agar
S. aureus
43. what type of vaccination do we give for measles?
live virus (kids > 15 mo of age)
44. cells that express BOTH CD4 and CD8 are ____ _____
immature T cells
45. painful ulceration on the penis is most likely caused by
H. ducreyi (chancroid)
46. microscopic findings in chancroid
pleomorphic rods in "school of fish" pattern
47. polyarteritis nodosa is associated with what viral infection?
Hep B
48. how does a superantigen work its magic?
Binds TCR variable region to MHC Class II to induce massive T cell activation
49. the name of the specific anti-treponemal test
FTA-ABS
50. what agar is used to grow Legionella?
buffered charcoal yeast extract
51. name some reportable infectious diseases
MMR, AIDS, gonorrhea, Salmonella, Shigella, syphilis, TB, chickenpox, Hep A,B&C
Hep,hep,hep horray the SSSMMART Chick is Gone
52. triad of Wiscott-Aldrich syndrome
purpura, eczema, recurrent bacterial infxn(WIPE)
53. patients with Wiscott-Aldrich are at increased risk for what cancer?
NHL
54.spirochete with "Shephard's Crook" appearance
Leptospira
55. gram stain and shape of Brucella
gram (-) cocci
56. what type of sensitivity: wheal and flare reactions?
Type I
57. what type of sensitivity: berylliosis?
Type IV (delayed)
58. what type of sensitivity: Graves' disease?
Type II
59. patient with chronic cough + tiny yeast in lungs
Histo
60. stain used for fungi
silver stain
61. another name for the acid-fast stain
Ziehl-Neeson stain
62. catalase (-), coagulase (-), optochin sensitive gram (+) cocci w/ greenish discoloration on blood agar
S. pneumo
63. sequence of events in the maturation of a B cell
heavy chain gene rearrangement > cytoplasmic mu chains > light chain gene rearrangement > IgM on surface > IgG & IgM on surface
64. contaminated swimming pools often transmit what virus?
adenovirus
65. major cause of diarrhea in kids under age 2
rotavirus
66. NADPH oxidase produces
superoxide anions
67. myeloperoxidase produces
H2O2 >>> HOCl
68. caused of upper lobe pneumonia with cavitation
K. pneumo
69. type of pneumonia associated with artificial ventilation
P. aeruginosa
70. mechanism of action of cycloheximide
inhibits eukaryotic protein synthesis
71. primary opsonin in the C' system
C3b
72. the electron transport system of bacteria is located in the
bacterial plasma membrane
73. bacterial endocarditis in IV drug users is usually due to
S. aureus
74. RBC-sized lung organisms that stain spherical or ovoid-shaped with silver stains PCP
75. chronic antral gastritis is associated with
H. pylori
76. in dxing a UTI, you find that the nitrate dipstick is negative. What's the bug? Enterococcus (gut streptococci)
77. nitrate dipstick is positive for what bugs?
all the gram (-) enterics - E. Coli, Klebsiella, Enterobacter, Pseudomonas
78. hepatitis type which is very dangerous in pregnant women
Hep E
79. before mast cells can degraunulate due to allergen exposure and cause a type I hypersensitivity reaction, what must occur?
sensitization - processing of Ag by APCs, production of IL4 by Th2 cells causing B cells to switch from IgM to IgE, IgE binds to surface of mast cells
80. what is the bug that carries and perpetuates Lyme disease?
Ixodes tick
81. most prevalent form of mycobacterium disease in AIDS patients
TB
82. levels of IgM in common variable immunodeficiency
all Ig low (lack of plasma cells)
83. the numbers of B cells in common variable immunodeficiency are
normal
84 .the numbers of B cells in Bruton's agammaglobulinemia are
low
85. the most common presentation for G6PD hemolysis in Africa is
a child who has just eaten beans
86. in the body, where can Histo be found?
intracellularly (not passed between people)
87. stain used for PCP
silver stain
88. bugs that take advantage of people with chronic granulomatous dz
S. Aureus, Aspergillus, Nocardia,E.coli,Psudomonas cepacia,Serratia marscenes, Salmonella (all are phagocytosed and not killed)
89. lack of C5 causes a susceptibility to what bug?
Neisseria
90.defective chemotactic response predisposes to what type of infection?
bacterial
91. the first three factors involved in the classical C' pathway
C1, C4, C2
92. acute epidydimitis with orchitis is most often caused by
N. gonorrhoeae
93. at-risk individuals for PCP include
AIDS patients and premature infants
94. Chlamydia must live intracellularly because
it cannot make its own ATP
95. S. aureus is a common pathogen of what part of the body?
nasopharynx
96. When B cells undergo isotype switching, they require these two things
IL-4, and interaction with T cells (CD40 on the B cell interacts with CD40L on the T cell
97. state the levels of IgG in hyper-IgM syndrome
IgM high, eveything else low
98. defect in hyper-IgM syndrome
CD40L on T cells causes B cells to fail to undergo isotype switching
99. a defect in IL-2 secretion puts patients at risk for what type of bugs?
intracellular
100. the RNA virus "exception" that replicates in the nucleus
orthomyxo (influenza)
101. the DNA virus "exception" that replicates in the cytoplasm
pox
102. the triad of cutaneous hemorrhage, periventricular calcifications, and deafness suggests which of the TORCHES?
CMV infection
103. most common cause of chronic meningitis
TB
104. deficiency of what C' tends to produce an SLE-like syndrome?
C4
105 The Ig profile for common variable immunodeficiency and X-linked agammaglobulinemia
low IgM, IgG, IgA
106. through where does N. fowleri enter the brain?
through the cribriform plate
107. during which phase of bacterial growth do spores form?
stationary phase
108. triad of Wiscott-Aldrich syndrome
eczema, thrombocytopenia, and repeated infections(WIPE)
109. transmission of Wiscott-Aldrich
X-linked
110. a T lymphocyte with low affinity for MHC Class I turns into a
CD8+ Tc lymphocyte
111. a T lymphocyte with low affinity for MHC Class II turns into a
CD4+ Th lymphocyte
112. gram (-) septic shock is mediated by what part of the gram (-) membrane? Lipid A
113. the vaginas of prepubertal girls and postmenopausal women is colonized by bugs of the skin (e.g. Staph)
114 .the vaginas of women of child-bearing age are colonized by
lactobacillus, candida, and Strep
115. gastric cancer has been linked to what bug?
H. pylori
116. population of cells responsible for DTH reaction
CD4+ T cells
117. where does HSV2 hang out during the asx times of the disease?
sacral ganglia
118. patients with Lyme arthritis commonly have what HLA association?
HLA-DR4
119. the bugs that undergo natural transformation
Haemophilus, Neisseria, Step, Helicobacter
120. virus associated with polyarteritis nodosa
Hep B
121. what type of hypersensitivity is poison ivy exposure?
DTH (Type IV)
122. name some type III hypersensitivity reactions
SLE, glomerulonephritis
123. how to differentate common variable immunodeficiency from X-linked agammaglobulinemia
in CVI, the B cell count is normal
124. at what age does common variable immunodeficiency often present?
2nd-3rd decades
125. when does ADA deficiency commonly present?
early in life
126. the infectious form of Crypto
encapsulated budding yeasts (it is a monomorphic fungus)
127. transmission form of Histo
septate hyphae with micro- and macroconidia
128. type of streptococcus which can cause rash on palms and soles
S. moniliformis ("rat-bite fever")
129. Ig used in the response against encapsulated bacteria
IgG (especially subclass 2)
130. loss of MHC Class I expression would make cells invincible to killying by what type of T lymphocyte?
CD8+ Tc lymphocyte
131. what is beta-2-microglobulin?
a signalling molecule of MHC I
132. transmembrane protein of HIV
Gp41
133. surface protein of HIV which may bind Ab
Gp120
134. outer membranes exist in gram (-/+) bacteria
gram -ve
135. toxin which ADP-ribosylates the Gs protein to permanently turn it on
cholera toxin
136. toxin which ADP-riboxylates the Gi protein to permanently turn it off
pertussis toxin
137. Blasto infection is acquired by
inhalation of spores
138. live virus vaccines
MMR, sabin polio, yellow fever
139. killed virus vaccines
salk polio, rabies, rotavirus, flu, HepA
140. what blood component works in concert with Ab to clear encapsulated bacteria? C'
141. ADCC is used against what type of cell?
host cell (not bacteria!)
142. what is a reagin?
an immunogen that stimulates an IgE response
143. the immunogen in quinine-mediated hemolysis
RBC+quinine (not just quinine because it cannot elicit a response by itself, which is the definition of an immunogen)
144. where do superAg bind?
invariant region of beta chain of TCR and MHC Class II molecules of APCs
145. psoas abscess ("cold abscess") is associated with what bug?
TB (tuberculous osteomyelitis)
146. what mechanism allows a B cell to express both IgD and IgM?
alternative mRNA splicing
147. toxic metabolite that causes problems in SCID
deoxyadenosine
148. which type of virus, in its infective form, can be diretly translated?
ss (+) RNA
149. how is Lyme diagnosed in the lab?
look for IgG or IgM Ab
150. acid-fast bugs that cause diarrhea in the immunocompromised
Cryptosporidium and Isospora
151. what does a "western blot for HIV" actually look for?
Ab to HIV Ag
152. B7 on an APC interacts with ___
on a T cell CD28
153. a genetic deficiency in ___ confers immunity to macrophage-tropic HIV
CCR5, a chemokine receptor required for the entry of HIV into CD4 T cells
154.ringworm of the hair and scalp transmitted by cats and dogs
Microsporum canis
155. most common cause of keratoconjunctivitis
adenovirus
156. type of cell that produces IL-2 and IFN-g
Th1 cells
157. type of cell that produces IL-1 and TNF-g
macrophage
158. type of cell that secretes IL-4, IL-5 and IL-10
Th2 cells
159. most common route of transmission of C. jejuni
poultry
160. a defect in NADPH oxidase causes
chronic granulomatous disease
161. turns off the Gi protein via ADP-ribosylation
B. pertussis
162. do Th2 cells recognize carrier or hapten in a vaccine?
carrier
163. Graft-vs-host disease is mediated by
CD8 Tc from the graft attacking the host
164. pathogenicity of Giardia is mediated by
ventral sucking disc
165.germ tube formation is used to identify
C. albicans
166. the RPR test is used for
detection of T. pallidum antibody
167. how do we visualize T. pallidum?
immunoflourescence staining (has replaced darkfield microscopy)
168. three important genera of acid-fast organisms
Nocardia, Mycobacteria, Cryptosporidium
169. organisms that are not acid-fast stain ___ with acid-fast stain
Blue
170. the HIV pol gene codes for .
RT and integrase
171. how does the P. aeruginosa exotoxin work?
like diptheria toxin - ADP-ribosylates EF-2
172. bullous pemphigoid is a Type ___
hypersensitivity reaction II
173. RA is a Type ___
hypersensitivity reaction III
174 .ABO incompatibility is a Type ___
hypersensitivity reaction II
175.Myasthenia gravis is a Type ___
hypersensitivity reaction II
176. serum sickness is a Type ___
hypersensitivity reaction III
177. erythema chronicum migrans usually affects what part of the body?
groin, axilla, thigh
178. the toxin of P. aeruginosa is most similar to what other toxin?
Diphtheria
179. what is the mechanism of diphtheria and pseudomonas toxins?
ADP-ribosylate EF-2
180. what differentiates pseudomonas and diphtheria toxins?
pseudomonas works in the liver, and diphtheria works on nerves and heart
181. patient living in the southwest who develops ARDS and dies
hantavirus
182. animal that spreads hantavirus
deer ,mouse
183. describe a patient with SSPE
ataxic, optic atrophy, oligoclonal bands on tap, cerebral atrophy, early death
184. two most important chemotactic factors for neutrophils
IL-8 and C5a
185. why are patients continually susceptible to reinfection with N. gonorrheae? changes in its antigenic coat
186. to determine the strain of S. aureus, what lab test should be done? bacteriophage sensitivity
187. a rash on hands and feet indicates
tertiary syphilis, RMSF, or Coxsackie
188. stain used to diagnose PCP
silver stain
189. a patient with Y. enterocolitica that secondarily develops arthritis has which type of hypersensitivity reaction?
Type III
190. to what type of disease is a patient with Bruton's susceptible to?
bacterial
191. cause of pinkeye
S. pneumo
192. common cause of neonatal meningitis; present in mom's flora
Listeria
193. make the dx: small intracellular yeast growing at RT as a mold, has hyphae with micro and macro-conidia
Histo
194. AIDS patient with multiple visual field deficits and decreased visual acuity - bug? CMV infection
195.underlying mechanism responsible for hypersensitivity to penicillin
Ab against drug bound to RBC surface
196. abrupt loss of resistance to an abx in a bacteria is due to
loss of a plasmid
197. the swelling of a bee sting is due to
local vasodilation
198. immunization induces the proliferation of which type of T cell?
Th cell
199. S. pyogenes is differentiated from the other types of beta-hemolytic strep by its sensitivity to
bacitracin
200. CMV is most often seen in the
immunocompromised
201. blood components involved in the Arthus reaction preformed
Ab and C'
202. when does an Arthus rxn occur?
reimmunization (e.g. tetanus booster)
203. coating of latex beads with __ and __ can be used to ID gram (+) cocci
IgG and fibrinogen
204. where in the US is coccidio found in the soil?
southwestern US
205. protective measles antibody is to what epitope on the measles virus surface? hemagglutinin
206. what type of organism tends to affect women with self-induced abortions? anaerobes (e.g. Clostridia)
207. normal Ab production but recurrent bacterial infections suggests a problem with what WBC? neutrophils
0 - ArchivalUser - 10-23-2008
good buddy keep going
0 - ArchivalUser - 10-23-2008
This is extremely helpful..thank you work is appreciated
0 - ArchivalUser - 10-23-2008
ur efforts are really commendable ....thanks a lot buddy ..u really helped us ..whose exams are really near .........thanks again ...carry on with ur great efforts ..good luck
0 - ArchivalUser - 10-24-2008
youmust ........... r u going to post more of that ?? or that's all u've summarized so far ........
i know i sound dumb .......... also i've a request for u , in case u've any more of rizwona's notes extract kindly post it here in the same thread , so that it's easier for us to keep track of it , thanks a lot
0 - ArchivalUser - 10-24-2008
hi--thanks for the complement--------I am not sure about the subsequent questiones ---I will try!!
0 - ArchivalUser - 10-26-2008
'Modified rizowaana's goods'---(;-) (;-) (;-)
What the hell are you talking about? I believe she is married with kids!!! Sorry, Rizowaana, I couldn't stop laughing!!!!! Don't mean to be rude though!
0 - ArchivalUser - 10-26-2008
If you want to checkout the answers to all of those remembered questions, www.clinicalreview.com does a good job reviewing it. See their Wiki too.