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A 70-year-old man is referred for colonoscopy as part of an evaluation for mild iron deficiency anemia. The endoscopist notes numerous polyps throughout the colon. A preliminary biopsy report is consistent with lymphoma. What type of lymphoma is the most likely cause of this patient™s clinical syndrome?
1..Burkitt™s lymphoma
2..Diffuse large B-cell lymphoma
3..Follicular lymphoma
4..Mantle cell lymphoma
5..Marginal zone lymphoma
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Cant be polyposis coli as it is not mentioned.But mantle cell has similar features.
4-mantle lymphoma
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answer is 4......
This patient has lymphomatous polyposis (not to be confused with lymphomatoid polyposis) associated with mantle cell lymphoma. For reasons that are unclear, the disease has a predilection for the intestinal tract. Mantle cell lymphoma is a progressive disease that results in death within an average of 3 to 5 years despite aggressive treatment regimens, including stem cell transplantation.4 Burkitt™s lymphoma often presents as a lymph node mass near the cecum in young men but is generally a rapidly growing malignancy that causes symptoms such as night sweats, weight loss, and abdominal pain. Diffuse large B-cell lymphoma, follicular lymphoma, and marginal zone lymphoma rarely present as multiple colonic polyps.
