q5 - aimhigh

[ArchivalUser]

A 50-year-old woman presents with a 5-year history of headaches, generalized tonic-clonic seizures, and bilateral
leg weakness. Skull films reveal hyperostosis of the calvarium. Biopsy of the responsible lesion shows a
whorling
pattern of the cells. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Arachnoid cyst
B. Glioblastoma multiforme
C. Meningioma
D. Metastatic breast cancer
E. Oligodendroglioma

[ArchivalUser]

D?

[ArchivalUser]

meningioma ??

[ArchivalUser]

c

[ArchivalUser]

The correct answer is C. The most likely diagnosis is an intracranial meningioma. Meningiomas are
slow-growing, benign tumors comprising 15% of intracranial tumors; they are most common in the elderly.
They
originate from either dura mater or arachnoid and are sharply demarcated from brain tissue. Meningiomas
often
incite an osteoblastic reaction in the overlying cranial bones. Microscopically, the meningioma cells have a
tendency to encircle one another, forming whorls and psammoma bodies. Clinically, they present as mass
lesions; seizures may occur. The superior parasagittal surface of the frontal lobes is a favorite site of origin.
This can often produce leg weakness, since the leg motor fibers that pass down through the internal capsule
originate in parasagittal cortical regions. Treatment of meningiomas is usually surgical.

[ArchivalUser]

cc

[ArchivalUser]

sorry was late