can anyone post dr.chebli remembered questions - kola

[ArchivalUser]

its a request

[ArchivalUser]

HY Pharmacology. Do not miss it!!
#246003
chebli - 11/24/07 17:30

Characteristic Disease
1st line tx for a fib is Digoxin
how does digoxin help in a fib? decreases conduction through AV node
treatment for C. difficile metronidazole
why doesn't gentamicin work for C. diff? genatmicin = aminoglycoside that only works for gram (-) infections
most common cause of drug-induced thrombocytopenia heparin
anticoagulant associated with development of ProC deficiency warfarin
kernicterus can result when pregnant women are given ___ in the third trimester TMP-sulfa
associated with "gray baby syndrome" when given to pregnant women chloramphenicol
topical ointment often used in the prophylaxis of infections in burn patients silver sulfadiazine cream
appropriate pharmacologic tx for DIC heparin
antidote for acetaminophen OD acetylcysteine
chelating agent used to treat OD with copper, lead, gold, and other metals penacillamine
given to people who OD on heparin protamine
acetylcholinesterase reactivator used in organophosphate poisoning pralidoxime
antiarrythmic which can cause drug-induced lupus procainamide
other drugs that can cause drug-induced lupus hydralazine, quinine, INH, methyldopa
drug that causes release of factor VIII from storage sites desmopressin
drug that specifically inhibits the translocation in CML imanitib mesylate (Gleevac)
neurotransmitter affected by sertraline serotonin (SSRI)
type of antibiotic likely to exacerbate MG aminoglycosides (risk for neuromuscular blockade)
drug used to diagnose MG edrophonium
most appropriate treatment of Klebsiella pneumonia cefotaxime IV
most appropriate treatment of Legionella pneumonia erythromycin IV
drugs that potentiate the effects of warfarin quinolones, erythromycin, sulfas, and metronidazole
mucolytic used in the treatment of CF N-acetylcysteine
tricyclic antidepressant which may cause hyperprolactinemia nortriptyline
anti-Parkinson's drug that affects dopamine selegiline
mechanism of selegiline MAO-B inhibitor (slows metabolism of dopa)
β blocker which does NOT exacerbate asthma (3) atenolol, metoprolol, esmolol
two main Abx used for anaerobes metronidazole and clindamycin
streptokinase binds to plasminogen
mechanism of cocaine blocks reuptake of NE
two drugs that increase the activity of lipoprotein lipase gemfibrozil and clofibrate
two drugs that act as bile acid sequestrants cholestyramine and colestipol
aminocaproic acid is indicated for control of bleeding by hyperfibrinolysis, and prophylaxis in hemophiliacs undergoing a surgical procedure
what causes hemolysis in G6PD deficient individuals? oxidative stress (low NADPH means glutathione cannot scavenge free radicals)
1st-line rx for panic disorder SSRI
reserved for refractory cases of schizophrenia due to risk of agranylocytosis clozapine
inappropriate laughter, scleral injection, tachycardia, and paranoia are typical of a person using what illicit substance? cannabis
1st-line rx for DVT IV heparin
1st-line rx for hypothyroidism levothyroxine
contraindication for levothyroxine use CAD (enhances β-adrenergic effects; may precipitate MI)
toxicities of methotrexate liver, renal, BM
after CLL chemotherapy, patients are at risk for what type of kidney stones? uric acid
alcoholics have (increased/decreased) levels of theophylline decreased (EtOH induces P450)
name the K+ sparing diuretics spironolactone, triamterene, amiloride
drug class of salsalate NSAID (salicylate)
effect of ammonium chloride on the urine acidifies
interaction of ammonium chloride and salicylates salicylate toxicity (amm chloride inhibits excretion)
mechanism of flutamide comp antagonist at androgen receptors
mechanism of finasteride 5α reductase inhibitor
Class I antiarrhythmics block ___ sodium channels
Name some class I antiarrhythmics quinidine (A), amiodarone (A, III), procainamide (A), lidocaine (B), flecainide ©
Class II antiarrhythmics block ___ beta-adrenergic receptors
Class III antiarrhythmics block ____ potassium channels
Name some class III antiarrhythmics sotalol (also β), amiodarone, bretylium
Class IV antiarrhythmics block ___ calcium channels
Name some class IV antiarrhythmics verapamil, diltiazam
mechanism of metoclopromide antagonist at D receptors
use of metoclopromide prokinetic agent used in GERD and diabetic gastroparesis
contraindication for metoclopromide (2) bowel obstruction, Parkinson's
necrosis of the skin can be a toxicity of what anticoagulant? warfarin
drug given for acute gouty attacks colchicine
xanthine oxidase inhibitor used in gout allpurinol
increases the excretion of uric acid (2) probenacid, sulfinpyrazone
define REM rebound some drugs steal REM; when removed, body has more REM, including vivid dreams
drugs that cause REM rebound when withdrawn barbiturates, EtOH, MAOI, phenothiazines
mechanism of caffeine inhibition of phosphodiesterase (prevent cAMP degradation)
carbonic anhydrase inhibitors can lead to what acid-base disturbance? metabolic acidosis
close a PDA with indomethacin
class of drugs that must be given to a patient in a fib and WHY anticoagulants; because the flow in the atrium is nonlaminar and predisposes to mural clots
inhaled corticosteroids are associated with ___ in asthmatic patients (microbial infxn) candidiasis
these cardiac drugs "mask" the initial sx of hypoglycemia and are thus contraindicated in diabetics β blockers
analgesic of choice for acute cholecystitis and WHY meperidine; least likely to cause spasm of sphincter of Oddi
initial drug of choice for acute status epilepticus diazepam
indications for carbamazepine prophylaxis and treatment of tonic-clonic, focal, and complex partial seizures
drug of choice for absence seizures ethosuximide
NSAID that is contraindicated in patients with sulfa allergy celecoxib
location of action of spironolactone collecting tubule
Name some drugs associated with the development of SIADH tricyclics, carbamazepine, SSRI, MAOI, neuroleptics, antineoplastics
post-MI drugs that cause dry cough ACE-I (captopril, enalapril)
two β1-selective antagonists metoprolol and atenolol
mechanism of propythiouracil inhibits peripheral conversion of T4 to T3 (aka inhibit deiodination of thyroxine)
general class of 5HT3 antagonists the -setrons
use for the -setrons antiemetics
indications for dimenhydrinate motion sickness (Dramamine ©)
what is dronabinol? active substance in marijuana
type of leukemia for which chlorambucil is used CLL
the "better drug" than tamoxifen raloxifene
mechanism of amphetamines induce release of dopa and NE
side effects associated with steroid use hypernatremia, hypocalcemia, fluid retention, hypocalcemia, hyperglycemia
indication for bethanechol urinary retention (as in BPH)
oxybutynin is indicated in urinary incontinence and urgency
α1 agonist indicated for both BPH and HTN terazosin
1st drug of choice for community-acquired S. pneumo pneumonia Pen G
lactic acidosis is the most severe complication of this diabetes drug metformin
what is the effect of cimetidine on hepatic enzymes? inhibits them
what is the effect of cimetidine on phenobarbital levels? increases them (inhibits metabolism)
do proton-pump inhibitors affect hepatic enzymes? no
in a patient with ulcers and RA, use COX-2 inhibitors
what neurotransmitter system do benzodiazepines affect? GABA
drug to treat T. cruzi Nifurtimox
what drug is used for immediate lowering of intracranial pressure? high-potency steroid (dexamethasone, prednisolone)
mechanism of action of amiodarone potassium-channel blocker (also Class IA)
big toxicity of amiodarone pulmonary disease
mechanism of action of warfarin inhibit synthesis of clotting factors (2, 7, 9, 10)
high doses of ____ will reduce morbidity and mortality in measles infxn vitamin A
children <3 mo of age who have come into contact with measles should get immune globulin
the best diuretic class for patients with CrCl of 10 mL/min loops (furosemide) (other categories only work down to a CrCl of 40)
common acid-base disorder as a result of overuse of diuretics metabolic alkalosis (increased Na and K excretion)
use for doxepin tricyclic antidepressant
common side effects of doxepin tachycardia, xerostomia (dry mouth)
name some ACEI captopril, enalapril
mechanism of erythromycin inhibits translocation
mechanism of streptomycin misreading during protein synthesis
mechanism of cyclohexamide inhibits peptidyl transferase (eukaryotes)
mechanism of chloramphenicol inhibits peptidyl transferase (prokaryotes)
drugs that increase peripheral insulin senstivity glitazones
rx for aspirin OD alkalinize the urine with sodium bicarb
mechanism of chlorpropamide sulfonylurea which causes release of insulin from pancreas (closes K channels)
Name the two α glycosidase inhibitors ascarbose, miglitol
effect of cimetidine on hepatic enzymes inhibits them
1st line tx for fibromyalgia antidepressants (usually amitriptyline)
antidepressant contraindicated in anorectics/bulemics because of risk of seizures buproprion
only antidepressant used in bulimia fluoxetine
first-generation cephalosporins are useful in killing which bugs? Proteus, E. Coli, and Klebsiella (PEcK)
this drug is useful in helping the kidneys to excrete amphetamines ammonium chloride (acidify urine)
syndrome of muscle rigidity, hyperpyrexia, CNS alterations, and heart alterations neuroleptic malignant syndrome (caused by antipsychotics and amoxipine)
side effects of fluoxetine insomnia, sexual dysfunction, anxiety
side effects of diazepam dizziness, somnolence, and drowsiness
epinephrine will decrease BP if what class of drug is coadministered? alpha-antagonists (phentolamine)
dietary drug that should be given with INH Vit B6 (pyridoxine)
class of diabetic drugs that is contraindicated in patients with sulfa allergies sulfonylureas (tolbutamide, glipizide, glyburide, chlorpropamide)
what is the effect of glucocorticoids on osteoclasts and osteoblasts? ↑ osteoclast activity, ↓ osteoblast activity (net bone loss)
mechanism of trihexyphenidyl muscarinic antagonist
indication for trihexyphenidyl Parkinson's
define efficacy maximum effect that can be obtained from a drug (regardless of dose)
drugs implicated in the development of acute interstitial nephritis NSAIDs, β lactams, sulfa drugs, diuretics, cimetidine, phenytoin, methyldopa
drugs implicated in hemolysis of G6PD-deficient pts primaquine, sulfas, dapsone, quinine
1st line tx in hypertrophic cardiomyopathy β blockers
hyperkalemia is a potential effect of what anesthetic? succinylcholine (depolarizing)
2 treatments for OCD clomipramine, SSRIs
sx of EtOH withdrawl tremor, n/v, high BP, hallucinations, sweating
sx of cocaine abuse tremor, n/v, high BP, hallucinations, sweating
prophylactic agent used to prevent hemorrhagic cystitis caused by nitrogen mustard agents (cyclophosphamide, ifosfamide) Mesna
prevents potential side effects of methotrexate leucovorin
overdose of atenolol can cause what EKG finding? heart block
drugs (2) used to treat H. pylori-induced gastric ulcer PPI + Abx
indication for cyclobenzaprine muscle relaxant (structurally related to tricyclic antidepressants)
way to remember the amide anesthetics they have two "I"s in their names (lidocaine, prilocaine, etidocaine)
way to remember the ester anesthetics they do not have two "I"s in their names
main side effect of tPA hemorrhage
1st order kinetics means that the drug kills a constant (#/proportion) of bugs proportion
the effectiveness of diuretics depend on ____ (laboratory value) creatinine clearance
which diuretics work best in a patient with very low creatinine clearance? loop (furosemide)
the antidepressant that can cause neuroleptic malignant syndrome amoxipine
this antiarrythmic can cause v fib in patients with Wolfe-Parkinson-White digoxin
β2-selective antagonists metoprolol, esmolol, and atenolol
Name 4 sulfonylurea diabetic drugs glipizide, glyburide, tolbutamide, chlorpropamide
Why are β-blockers contraindicated in diabetics? blunt premonitory sx of hypoglycemia
silver sulfa cream is indicated for severe burns
betamethasone cream is indicated for inflammatory conditions of the skin (e.g. psoriasis)
erythromycin topical cream is indicated for acne
metronidazole cream is indicated for acne rosacea
analgesic used in acute cholecystitis meperidine
depolarizing skeletal muscle agent used in anesthesia succinylcholine
preferentially inhibits MAO-B selegiline
antimuscarinic that improves the muscular rigidity & tremor of Parkinson's benztropine
dopamine receptor antagonists used in Parkinson's (2) bromocriptine, pergolide
the active metaboits of 5-FU mimics the action of which nucleotides? uracil (RNA) and thymine (DNA)
mechanism of action of bethanechol muscarinic agonist
mechanism of bumetanide loop diuretic (inhibits Na-K-Cl transporter in thick ascending limb)
mechanism of neostigmine inhibits acetylcholinesterase (muscarinic agonist)
indicated for the rx of both BPH and HTN terazosin
mechanism of guanfacine and indication centrally-acting α2 agonist (for HTN)
acute control of a fib is achieved with digoxin
cyclobenzapine is structurally related to tricyclic antidepressant
tricyclic antidepressant with strong anticholinergic properties amitriptyline
mechanism of citalopram SSRI
LEAST sedating anti-seizure medication valproic acid
treatment for salicylate poisoning acidifcation of urine (e.g. ammonium chloride)
β blockers with intrinsic sympathomimetic activity (2) acebutolol, pindolol
inhibitory amino acid receptors (2) GABA and glycine
antidepressants that may cause amenorrhea and galactorrhea tricyclics (due to increased prolactin)
1st line rx for severe, refractory Crohn's corticosteroids (e.g. prednisone)
uric acid kidney stones are associated with what rx? chemotherapy
uric acid kidney stones are associated with what sytemic dz? gout
centrally-acting skeletal muscle depressant structurally related to tricyclic antidepressants cyclobenzaprine
baclofen is indicated for rx of spasticity of MS or spinal cord injuries
reinforcement properties of illicit drugs are most likely associated with what neurotransmitter? dopamine
hemorrhagic cystitis can be prevented in patients taking cyclophosphamide by administration of what drug? mesna
antidote for cyanide poisoning sodium thiosulfate
mechanism of N-acetycystine mucolytic (splits disulfide linkages between mucoproteins)
CHF can be caused by what chemotherapeutic drug? doxorubicin (adriamycin)
abx associated with kernicterus in an infant when taken during 3rd trimester sulfa drugs
anticoagulant that can cause skin necrosis warfarin
acute management of RA is usually COX-2 inhibitors
mechanism of sumatriptan serotonin 1D agonist
the two active metabolites of primidone phenobarbital, PEMA
drug of choice for HTN in a pregnant woman methyldopa (α2 agonist)
drugs proven to delay progression of CHF ACE inhibitors
which tetracycline is best to use in a patient with renal disease? doxycycline
three Class IB antiarrhythmics procainamide, mexiletine, tocainide
three Class IA antiarrythmics quinidine, disopyramide, amiodarone, procainamide
rx for methotrexate OD alkalinize the urine with sodium bicarb
mechanism of benztropine anticholinergic (used in Parkinson's)
side effects of benztropine decreased salivation, lacrimation, urination, defecation, and GI motility (anti-SLUDG)
where in a liver cell is the P450 system located? smooth ER
antihypertensives indicated in ADPKD ACE inhibitors (b/c renin is high in ADPKD)
nonsedating anti-seizure medication valproic acid
primary side effect of niacin facial flushing
β blocker known to cause dyslipidemia metoprolol
anti-migraine medication that can cause hypertensive crisis sumatriptan
primary side effect of ergotamine n/v
how does one differentiate between stimulant OD and anticholinergic OD? look at the skin - sweaty with stimulants and dry with anticholinergics
mechanism of the statins HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors
mechanism of the tricyclic antidepressants inhibit uptake of NE and serotonin
rx for serum sickness prednisone and diphenhydramine
name the drug(s): ↓SA node automaticity, ↑AV node refractoriness, ↓AV node conduction velcoity propanolol (Class II antiarrhythmics)
acute rx for closed-angle glaucoma lower IOP with acetazolamide or mannitol
rx for open-angle glaucoma β blockers
which class of antiarrhythmics can be used for immediate control of a fib and flutter? Class IV (especially verapamil)
how long does amiodarone take to show an effect? weeks (i.e. DO NOT USE for acute rx!!)
exacerbations of narrow-angle glaucoma can be precipitated by what class of drug? anticholinergics
how do anti-myasthenia gravis drugs typically work? anticholinesterases (carbamylate the cholinesterase reversibly)
mechanism of edrophonium comp inhibitor (short-acting) of cholinesterase
which type of receptor (β1, α2, etc.) would be expected to maximally increase the intracellular concentration of calcium? α1 (it works by PLC, not adenylyl cyclase)
to what class does indipamide belong? thiazide diuretic
what is the effect of thiazides on Ca excretion? less excretion (thus can help prevent osteoporosis)
the drugs that artifically prolong the patency of the ductus arteriosis PGs
associated with p-ANCA polyarteritis nodosa
viral infection associated with polyarteritis nodosa Hep B
type of diuretic which places the patient at risk for gout thiazides
NO stimulates ____ to induce vascular changes guanylate cyclase
anovulatory cycles cause what changes in the endometrium? proliferative changes due to unopposed estrogen stimulation (get dysfunctional bleeding)
best drug to treat both HTN and BPH α antagonist
sucralfate CANNOT be given with what other classes of drug? antacids or H2 blockers
opioid agonist without abuse liability, constipating SE, resp depression, or analgesia dextromethorphan
Ca channel blocker used to treat both angina and HTN verapamil
side effects of verapamil signs and sx of CHF (a small percentage of patients actually develop CHF)
what is the rx for an amphetamide OD? acidify the urine with ammonium chloride
what is the rx for phenobarbital OD? alkalinize the urine with sodium bicarb
rx for TIA aspirin
drugs given to mitigate the effects of CNS stimulants diazepam, antipsychotics, β blockers
CHF drug that afftects BOTH preload and afterload ACEI
abrupt discontinuation of glucocorticoids causes hypotension, hypoglycemia, hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, decreased ACTH, low cortisol
serious side effect of misoprostol induced abortion
noncompetitive antagonist's effect on efficacy and potency potency unchanged, decreased efficacy
competitive antagonist's effect on efficacy and potency decreased potency, unchanged efficacy
β blocker that antagonizes the vascular and cardiac effects of NE labetolol (β1 = β2 antagonist, α1 antagonist)
formication is typical of what illicit drug use? Stimulants (e.g. amphetamine)
mechanism of cromolyn sodium inhibits the degranulation of mast cells in asthmatics
drugs of choice for acute gout colchicine and NSAIDs (which take longer for symptomatic relief)
opioid agonist used to induce emesis apomorphine
histamine blocker without sedating properties fexofenadine
nitroprusside causes dilation of (arterioles/venules/both) both
side effects of nitroprusside cyanide toxicity, hypotension
mechanism of action of leuprolide GnRH analog
mechanism of finasteride 5α reductase inhibitor
mechanism of action of flutamide antagonist at androgen receptors
mechanisms of action of gemfibrozil and clofibrate activate lipoprotein lipase
mechanism of action of cholestyramine bind bile acids in the intestine
mechanism of action of ticlopidine prevents fibrinogen from binding to platelets
mechanism of action of dipyridamole phosphodiesterase inhibitor that blocks the reuptake of adenosine
muscarinic antagonist that produces mydriasis and prevents accomodation scopolamine
stimulation of which receptors causes bladder emptying (detrusor contraction)? cholinergic parasympathetics
effect of isoproterenol on the heart tachycardia
anticancer agent that causes minimal myelosuppression vincristine
Level 5 emetogenic drugs given for cancer chemo Dacarbazine, Cyclophosphamide, Cisplatin, Carmustine
anti-seizure med associated with thrombocytopenia valproate
what's the second messanger associated with alpha-1 receptors? PIP2 > DAG + IP3 > pro kin C + increased Ca
what is the second messanger associated with beta receptors? inc adenylate cyclase > cAMP > pro kin C
how does the second messanger system of alpha-2 receptors differ from that associated with beta receptors? both use adenylate cyclase; alpha is inhibitory, beta is stimulatory
D2 receptors have a second messanger system similar to what other receptor? alpha2 (inhibit adenylate cyclase)
what is ergocalciferol? synthetic Vitamin D (for lack of PTH)
antibacterial agent which will be not absorbed if taken with antacids tetracycline
neurotransmitter used at the NMJ Ach
are charged or uncharged drugs more readily taken up? uncharged
illicit drug that causes nystagmus PCP
illicit drug that causes perceptual changes, but not behavioral changes LSD
mechanism of action of losartan competitively inhibits angiotensin II
used in the rx of HTN in diabetic patients ACEI
the effect of enalapril on sodium & potassium balance hyperkalemia and mild hyponatremia
drug of choice for pneumococcal pneumonia Penicillin
two drugs used in pneumococcal pneumonia in patients with sulfa allergies erythromycin or vancomycin
recessed, darkened rings w/o enamel on new teeth can be caused by excess of what mineral? flouride
what class of antidepressants cause delayed ejaculation? SSRI
cancer antimetabolites act during which phase of the cell cycle? S (synthesis) phase
lab studies in a patient given T3 supplementation low TSH, high T3, low T4 (b/c T3 not peripherally converted to T4)
Ca channel blocker that is associated with acceleration of CHF in some patients verapamil
is verapamil a - or + inotrope? -
which antidepressant can cause spontaneous priapism? trazodone
the bug that causes granuloma formation in utero Listeria
leukocytoclastic angiitis is also known as hypersensitivity angiitis
leukocytoclastic angiitis has been linked to the use of what drug? penicillin
mechanism of action of methoxamine alpha-1 agonist
side effects of methotrexate BM suppression, pulm toxicity, renal toxicity
significant side effect of vinblastine BM suppression, hemmorrhagic colitis
significant side effect of vincristine neurotoxicity
most common cause of drug-induced hypothyroidism lithium carbonate
lente insulins have best effect between __ and __ hours 10 and 16
insulin preparations with long (i.e. 16-24 hours) duration of action ultralente or protamine zinc
peak effect of regular insulin 4 hours
what other insulin preparation has a peak effect similar to regular insulin? semilente
mechanism of action of carvedilol like labetolol - beta and alpha-1 antagonist with longer half-life
ACEI are contraindicated in what type of hypertension? renovascular
local anesthetics block ___ channels while (charged/uncharged) (inside/outside) the cell Na channels when charged inside the cell
livedo reticularis is a common side effect of what anti-Parkinson's drug? amantidine
sx of livedo reticularis purplish-red mottling of the LE which intensifies with standing
cardioprotective agent used to protect pt against doxorubicin dexrazoxane
clozapine's advantage over the typical antipsychotics fewer EPS and good for (-) sx
NSAID with the greatest renal toxicity indomethacin
synthetic PG used to prevent NSAID-induced ulcers misprostol
appropriate initial therapy for septic shock dopamine
mechanism of dobutamine alpha-1 and beta-1 agonist
treat pinworm with mebendazole
orally active lead chelator succimer
mechanism of action of glycopyrrolate anticholinergic (like atropine)
preferred class of drug for panic disorder benzodiazepine
antidepressant used in OCD clomipramine, SSRIs
Rx for pyelo in patients allergic to sulfa aminoglycosides
cephalosporins have cross-allergenicity with penicillins
buspirone is most often used for generalized anxiety disorder
why isn't buspirone used for stage fright or performance anxiety? it takes a long time to take effect
increased zinc protophoryin indicates poisoning with lead
the effect of aspirin on warfarin displaces warfarin; makes warfarin more potent
drugs that often lead to orthostatic hypotension alpha-1 blockers
nitroprusside works due to what second messanger? NO, which increases cGMP to relax smooth muscle
Is it often or rare that tetracycline resistance accompanies methicillin resistance in S. aureus? often (>75%)
what do we use for methicillin- and tetracycline-resistant S. aureus? use vancomycin
chemotherapeutic agent associated with peripheral neuropathy vincristine
antibiotic which will NOT be absorbed in the presence of antacids tetracycline
overuse of a thiazide diuretic will induce a ____ in aldosterone increase
effect of physostigmine on the eye accomodation and niosis
when acyclovir fails, try foscarnet
one major side effect of IM fluphenazine is severe orthostatic hypotension
hyperprolactinemia can be reduced with bromocriptine
treatment for methemoglobinemia methylene blue
best agent for lowering intracranial pressure mannitol
histologic feature of measles infection syncytia formation
treatment for PCP SMX-TMP
increased amounts of sER indicate that the patient has been taking a drug that induces P450
mechanism of tolbutamide blocks ATP-sensitive K channels, leading to the release of insulin
pharacologic treatment for enuresis imipramine
maintaining the patency of a ductus arteriosis is done with misoprostol
schedule of cortisol replacement 20 mg in am and 10 mg in pm
mechanism of finasteride 5-alpha reductase inhibitor
skeletal mm relaxant associated with decreases in BP tubocurarine
mm rigidity, diaphoresis, hyperpyrexia, and altered mental status are typical of what reaction caused by antipsychotics? neuroleptic malignant syndrome (caused by antipsychotics and amoxipine)
common side effects of erythromycin Gi discomfort
which adrenergic receptor best stimulates protein kinase A? beta-1
which beta blocker has weak adrenergic agonist activity? pindolol
the most effective adrenergic drugs for increases intracellular Ca are alpha-1 agonists
mechanism of action of tyramine releases catecholamines
acute mastitis is treated with dicloxacillin
strep pneumo is treated with Pen G
treat C diff with metro, vanc
the diuretic class that inhibits Cl transport in the loop of henle loop diuretic (inhibits Na-K-Cl transporter in thick ascending limb)
what type of drug would enhance the reflex change in HR produced by IV norepi? cholinergics, e.g. neostigmine
the mechanism of contraceptive effect in testosterone is inhibition of LH release from the pituitary
drug of choice for trichuriasis mebendazole
drug of choice for OCD clomipramine, SSRIs
long-term use of broad-spectrum Abx can cause a deficiency in what vitamin? vitamin K
what cell produces NO? capillary endothelium
why is PenG ineffective against most gram (+) organisms? outer cell membrane acts as a sieve to keep out large molecules like Pen G
non-pharmacologic tx for patient with stress incontinence strengthen the urogenital diaphragm
mechanism of action of belladonna alkaloids muscarinic antagonists
what is cycloplegia? paralysis of the ciliary mm (accomodation affected)
the radial mm is innervated by alpha-1 adrenergics
the ciliary mm is innervated by muscarinics
role of the radial mm changes pupil size
expected effect of phenylephrine on accomodation and pupil size no affect on accomodation (ciliary mm = muscarinics); mydriasis
the tx for neostigmine overdose is atropine (pralidoxime won't work because neostigmine irreversibly carbamoylates)
effect of dig on intracellular Na and K levels Na increases; K decreases
main virulence factor of group B strep capsule to prevent phagocytosis
how does one eradicate spores? autoclaving (wet heat for 15 minutes)
effect of TMP-SMX on warfarin displaces warfarin; makes warfarin more potent
most rational drug regimen for fast metabolizers normal loading dose, increased maintenance dose
10% of patients taking ___ show increased CK and myalgias after exercise statins
how to distinguish propanolol, nadolol, and pindolol YOU CAN'T! They are all the same.
used to prevent bone loss in a 30 yo woman with recent oophorectomy/hysterectomy estrogens (oral Ca not as effective)
drug of choice for iron poisoning deferoxamine
EtOH use increases the serum concentration of what lipoprotein? HDL (this is why it is cardioprotective)
diuretics often trigger what acid-base abnormality? metabolic alkalosis (with low K and high HCO3)
the appropriate therapeutic interventions for a patient who stepped on a nail but who has not had a tetanus shot in over 10 years both toxoid (booster) and antitoxin
the intervention for a patient who stepped on a nail who has current tetanus shots booster toxoid shot
treatment for AIDS patient (taking RT inhibitors and protease inhibitors) with anemia EPO





anatomy hy )
#246993
chebli - 11/27/07 20:05

Characteristic Disease
1 wrist drop (inability to extend the wrist and fingers) caused by damage to what nerve? radial nerve (posterior chord of BP)
2 this nerve supplies the flexors of the arm and is cutaneous in the forearm musculocutaneous nerve
3 most intrinsic hand muscles are supplied by what nerve? ulnar nerve
4 order of structures passing behind the medial malleolus (from ant to post) (anterior) tibialis posterior, flexor digitorum longus, posterior tibial aa, flexor hallucis longus (TOM, DICK, AND HARRY)
5 CN from which chorda tympani originates CN VII
6 chorda tympani controls salivation from which glands? sublingual and submandibular
7 parotid is innervated by which nerve? glossopharyngeal (CN IX)
8 median nerve paralysis causes ulnar deviation of the hand (unopposed flexor carpi ulnaris innervated by ulnar)
9 innervation of the interossei ulnar
10 ulnar nerve lesion causes radial deviation of the hand (unopposed flexor carpi radialis innervated by radial)
11 radial nerve paralysis causes inability to extend the hand against gravity ("wrist drop"), loss of triceps and brachioradialis reflexes
12 what causes cleft lips? failure of maxillary and medial nasal processes to fuse during development
13 occlusion of the gastroduodenal aa would cause no change (rich supply from various sources)
14 nerve that causes extension of the thumb radial
15 nerve which adducts the thumb ulnar
16 nerve that abducts, rotates, opposes, and flexes the thumb median
17 nerve that runs with the spermatic cord through the inguinal canals ilioinguinal
18 direct inguinal hernias are due to what defect? breakdown of transversus abdominalis aponeurosis and transversalis fascia
19 small bowel receives its blood supply from the superior mesenteric aa.
20 what embryological defect puts an infant at risk for inguinal hernia? patent processus vaginalis
21 testicular histology shows many Leydig cells, few Sertoli cells, and absent germ cells; patient presents with gynecomastia and small testes Klinefelter's (46,XXY)
22 what nerve runs through the parotid gland? facial nerve
23 what nerve accompanies the superior laryngeal aa? internal branch of superior laryngeal nn
24 innervation of the superior laryngeal nn mucosa above the vocal folds
25 what is the ventral white commissure? crossing fibers of the spinothalamic tract
26 Cooper's ligaments connect mammary glands to the dermis of overlying skin
27 alternative name for inguinal ligament Poupart's ligaments
28 multiple small openings in the depressed area of the nipple are lactiferous ducts
29 # of lobes in every breast 10 to 15
30 derivatives of the uteric bud collecting ducts, calyces, renal pelvis
31 patients with verbal difficulties most likely have a lesion in which hemisphere? left
32 artery that supplies the distal lesser curvature of the stomach right gastric
33 movements mediated by the trapezius mm elevation of the acromion (upper fibers) and depression of the medial scapula (lower fibers)
34 on what day of embryonic life is the notochord formed? 17
35 during what week can a fetus move? 8 weeks gestation
36 the incision for a saphenous cutdown should be located . anterior to the medial malleolus
37 the structure immediately medial to the insertion of the biceps (near the elbow) is brachial aa
38 role of MIF in development suppression of paramesonephric ducts
39 the only mm that can elevate the eye in the abducted position is the superior rectus
40 embyronic origin of the thyroid foramen cecum
41 the first pharyngeal pouch develops into middle ear, eustacian tube
42 the second pharyngeal arch develops into mm of face, styloid process of temporal bone
43 the third pharyngeal pouch develops into thymus, inferior parathyroids
44 which mm lowers the jaw? lateral pterygoid
45 what CN(s) come(s) through the foramen ovale? What branch? V3
46 what CN(s) come(s) through the foramen rotundum? V2
47 what CN(s) come(s) through the superior orbital fissure? III, IV, V1, VI
48 which two CNs come through the internal acoustic meatus? VII, VIII
49 which three CNs come through the jugular foramen? XI, X, XI
50 which CN(s) come(s) through the cribriform plate? I
51 nerve that innervates all the thenar mm median
52 the medial aspects of the cerebral hemispheres are supplied by which aa? anterior cerebral
53 location of the AV node subendocardium of the interarterial septum
54 location of SA node wall of the right atrium
55 innervation of the stapedius facial (CN VII)
56 the heart begins to beat at what week of gestation? 4th
57 the heart is fully formed by what week of gestation? 6th
58 what muscle might avulse the lesser trochanter from the femur, resulting in fracture? psoas major
59 3 mm that insert into the greater trochanter of the femur gluteus minimus and medius, piriformis
60 most common form of ASD results from failure of fusion of the septum primum and secundum
61 type of epithelium contained in the distal esophagus nonkeratinized stratified squamous
62 the median nerve is formed by which cords of the brachial plexus? lateral and medial
63 the medial nerve runs between which two tendons on the anterior aspect of the forearm? palmaris longus and flexor carpi radialis
64 the smooth part of the right ventricule is derived from bulbus cordis
65 the smooth part of the right atrium is derived from sinus venosus
66 the truncus arteriosis develops into the proximal pulm aa and ascending aorta
67 lesion results in inability to dorsiflex and inversion of the foot when relaxed common peroneal nerve lesion
68 A patient's tongue deviates toward the right. What mm and nerve are affected? right hypoglossal (CN XII); right genioglossus
69 what is the role of the hyoglossus mm? retracts the tongue
70 information carried by the dorsal column system of the spinal cord proprioception, discriminative touch, vibration
71 pseudounipolar cells are derived from the neural crest
72 Schwann cells are derived from the neural crest
73 astrocytes and microglia are derived from the neural tube
74 path of the superior sagittal sinus along the attachment of the falx cerebri
75 how does a mast cell look on EM? "scroll" inclusions (look like lamellar bodies), cell membrane irregularities, microvilli, evident nucleolus
76 "unhappy triad" medial meniscus, medial collateral ligament, and ACL tear
77 the sensory innervation of the posterior half of the external auditory meatus comes from . auricular branch of the vagus (CN X)
78 sensory innervation of the anterior half of the external auditory meatus auriculotemporal nerve
79 abdominal viscera protrude through the anterior abdominal wall (not covered in skin, etc) when what fails to occur during embryogenesis? failure of fusion of the lateral body folds (4th wk)
80 failure of the yolk stalk to degenerate results in Meckel's diverticulum
81 pain from the anterior two-thirds of the tongue is carried to the CNS by V3
82 taste from the anterior 2/3 of the tongue is carried to the CNS by VII
83 what is the role of CN IX in taste and pain sensation of the tongue? posterior 1/3 of the tongue (pain & taste)
84 the structure medial to a femoral hernia in a female patient lacunar ligament
85 indirect inguinal hernias pass just lateral to inferior gastric aa
86 direct inguinal hernias pass just medial to inferior gastric aa
87 anesthetic injected near the ischial spine will block which nerve? pudendal
88 what nerve runs just anterior to the anterior scalene mm? phrenic nn
89 brain structure involved with formation of memories hippocampus
90 the greater sciatic foramen is occupied by what mm? piriformis
91 what nn runs through the greater sciatic foramen just caudal to the piriformis? superior gluteal nerve (along with the aa and vv)
92 what nns run through the greater sciatic foramen just below the piriformis? pudendal & sciatic
93 the remnant of the embryological umbilical vein falciform ligament
94 in which part of the small intestine does a Meckel's diverticulum arise? ileum
95 neurons in the olfactory bulb synapse on which part of the brain? pyriform cortex
96 name the mm that causes internal rotation of the arm at the shoulder subscapularis
97 the inferior rectal nerve is a direct branch of the pudendal nn.
98 innervation of the abductor pollicis longus median nn.
99 innervation of the adductor pollicis ulnar nn.
100 mostly unbrached vein existing on the medial side of the leg and continuing upward to meet with the femoral vein saphenous
101 what does the ansa cervicalis innervate? geniohyoid (pulls the hyoid bone anteriorly for swallowing)
102 the inferior mesenteric aa arises from the abdominal aorta directly posterior to what structure? third part of the duodenum
103 the superior mesenteric aa arises from the aorta directly posterior to what structure? neck of the pancreas
104 the ____ contains striated mm NOT under voluntary control esophagus
105 the foramen through which the saphenous vein passes to join the femoral vein fossa ovalis
106 mm that flexes the thigh at the hip psoas major
107 the fasciculus cuneatus carries what kind of fibers from where? proprioception, discriminative touch, vibration from the arms
108 the role of the sER steroid hormone synthesis and detox
109 decreased sensation over the first 3.5 digits of the hand indicates a lesion of median nn.
110 what mm are supplied by the median nerve? opponens pollicis, abductor pollicis brevis, flexor pollicis brevis, 1st 2 lumbricals, anterior forearm flexors
111 the extensor pollicis longus is supplied by the (nn) radial nerve
112 backward movement of the jaw during chewing is due to what mm? temporalis
113 gap junctions contain connexons
114 tonofilaments are found in hemidesmosomes and desmosomes
115 what type of collagen is found in the basal lamina? Type IV (under the floor)
116 the superior opthalamic vein drains into the cavernous sinus
117 the sigmoid sinus drains into the IJV
118 the posterior continuation of the cavernous sinus is the petrosal sinus
119 three mm that flex the arm at the elbow biceps, brachioradialis, and brachialis
120 the median nerve passes through the two heads of what mm? pronator teres
121 the coracobrachialis is pierced by the MC nerve
122 the flexor carpi ulnaris is pierced by the ulnar nerve
123 the deep branch of the radial nerve pierces which mm? supinator mm
124 annular pancreas results from a failure in what part of normal development? failure of the ventral pancreatic bud to rotate around the second part of the duodenum
125 pain sensation from the upper part of the posterior pharynx is carred by the glossopharyngeal (CN IX)
126 the cells that provide myelin in the CNS oligodendrocytes
127 to which nodes is a cancer of the descending colon most likely to metastasize? inferior mesenteric
128 the gastroepiploic lymph nodes drain the greater curvature of the stomach
129 the superficial inguinal lymph nodes drain rectum, vagina, and perineum
130 the internal iliac nodes drain the bladder and male internal genitalia
131 the subpyloric nodes drain the distal stomach, duodenum, and pancreas
132 upward traction on the upper limb may cause what brachial plexus injury? lower trunk (interossei and thumb problems)
133 two "ligaments" that separate the greater peritoneal sac from the lesser gastrohepatic, hepatoduodenal
134 claw hand is due to ulnar nerve lesion
135 cord of the brachial plexus from which the ulnar nerve arises medial cord
136 cord of the brachial plexus from which the MC nerve arises lateral cord
137 obturator nerve innervates mm of medial compartment of the thigh (adductors and gracilis)
138 is the lower trunk of the brachial plexus within the axillary sheath? no > formed in the neck and moves independently
139 hip abduction is mediated by what nerve? superior gluteal nerve
140 nn responsible for knee extension femoral nerve
141 the vertebral artery lies in what "triangle" of the neck? suboccipital
142 margins of the suboccipital triangle inferior & superior oblique, rectus major
143 margins of the posterior triangle of the neck trapezius, SCM, middle 1/3 of clavicle
144 margins of the anterior triangle of the neck neck midline, mandible, and SCM
145 in fetal life, what does the vitelline duct connect? terminal ileum with umbilicus and yolk sac
146 with what structures does the axillary aa travel in the axilla? cords of the brachial plexus (all three)
147 relative to the rib, where do intercostal nn run? in a notch above the rib
148 what is contained in the hepatoduodenal ligament? common bile duct and hepatic vessels
149 what structures are contained in the gastrohepatic ligament? none > can be cut in surgery without sequellae
150 sensation supplied by the median nerve palmer aspects of first 3.5 fingers, and dorsal digits of first 3.5 fingers (including nail beds)
151 nerves that supply sensation to the dorsal aspect of the hand radial (on the thumb side) and ulnar (on the pinkie side)
152 nerve that lies in the posterior tonsillar fossa CN IX
153 the muscles of mastication are derived from what pharyngeal arch? first
154 sensory innervation of the sole of the foot is by the . posterior tibial nerve
155 nn that supplies the medial mm of the thigh obturator
156 the femoral nerve innervates the mm of the anterior compartment of the thigh
157 the posterior compartment of the thigh is innervated by sciatic nerve
158 the uterus develops from the mesonephric ducts
159 the role of neural crest cells in the development of the heart invade the aorticopulmonary septum
160 retroperitoneal organs descending & ascending colon, duodenum, kidneys, adrenals
161 brief pathway of auditory sensation spiral ganglion > CN VIII > dorsal/ventral cochlear nuclei of the medulla > superior olivary nuceli > lateral lemniscus > inferior colliculus of the midbrain > medial geniculate body of thalamus > auditory cortex
162 the superior colliculus is involved in . eye movements
163 Erb's palsy results from a lesion of the upper part of brachial plexus (C5, C6)
164 the facial vein drains into the cavernous sinus
165 name three structures in the hepatoduodenal ligament common bile duct and hepatic vessels
166 how are the three structures of the hepatoduodenal ligament arranged? portal vein is posterior, bile duct is on right, hepatic aa on left
167 mm that elevates the soft palate levator palatini
168 innervation of the mm that elevates the soft palate CN X
169 when the uvula deviates toward the right, the most likely lesion is left CN X
170 course of the axillary nerve surgical neck of the humerous
171 innervation of the axillary nerve deltoid mm
172 a lesion of the axillary nerve would cause .. inability to raise the arm from the side
173 the posterior descending artery is a branch of the . RCA
174 nerve in the posterior triangle of the neck accessory
175 the pancreas gets its arterial supply from the celiac aa
176 the ductus deferens and the spermatic cord converge when they pass through the internal inguinal ring
177 inability to read (alexia), with preservation of the ability to write (agraphia), is indicative of a lesion in the left occipital cortex and splenium of CC
178 nerve that innervates the dorsum of the foot superficial peroneal
179 anesthesia of the medial surface of the leg suggests a lesion of the saphenous nerve
180 when a female stands, where does fluid in the abdomen collect? rectouterine pouch (of Douglas)
181 venous place in the body with pressure oscillations of 25/0 RA
182 venous place in the body with no pressure oscillations peripheral veins
183 cell bodies for Pacinian corpuscles reside in DRG
184 depression of the mandible is affected by what nerves? mandibular and facial (digastric) (NOTE: First Aid says that the lateral pterygoid lowers the mandible. You decide)
185 the cremasteric reflex is elicited via what nerve roots? L1, L2
186 a waddling (Trundelberg) gait is indicative of . lesion of the gluteus medius and minimus or the superior gluteal nerve
187 loss of the ability to climb stairs is indicative of lesion of gluteus maximum or inferior gluteal nn
188 lesion of CN III would result in an eye that looks . down and out
189 damage to Meyer's loop results in. contralateral superior quadrantanopsia
190 the azygus vein drains the posterior thoracic wall
191 the azygus vein empties into the SVC
192 the paramesonephric ducts give rise to the upper vagina, cervix, uterus, and fallopian tubes
193 the lower vagina develops from the . urogenital sinus
194 what cell in the liver is derived from foregut endoderm? hepatocytes
195 nerve that accompanies the superior laryngeal aa superior laryngeal nerve (internal branch)
196 innervation of the superior laryngeal nn (internal branch) mucosa above the vocal folds
197 nn that provides sensory innervation to the laryngeal mucosa below the vocal folds recurrent laryngeal nerve
198 motor innervation to the cricothyroid superior laryngeal nerve (external branch)
199 what fascia encloses the thyroid gland? pretracheal
200 what is the best place to palpate the dorsalis pedis artery? on the dorsum of the foot, between the tendons of the extensor hallucis longus and extensor digitorum longus
201 lymph from the medial side of the foot drains via lymphatics near the saphenous vein into the inguinal nodes
202 lymph from the lateral side of the foot drains via lymphatics near the short saphenous vein into the popliteal nodes
203 what is the gap between the two embryonic atria called? ostium primum
204 what fills the gap between the two embryonic atria? septum primum
205 when the septum primum meets with the ___, the ostium primum is closed endocardial cushions
206 failure of the septum primum to fuse with the cushions results in . ostium primum-type ASD
207 the ostium secondum usually forms within the septum primum
208 the results of failure to form the septum secundum fetal death (no hole between atria means no oxygenation for most of the fetus)
209 run through the development of the foramen ovale, etc. ostium primum closed by septum primum > ostium segundum forms > septum primum fuses with endocardial cushions > septum segundum develops
210 the valve of the foramen ovale is made up of the septum ostium (the part that does not regress)
211 does the septum segundum fuse with the endocardial cushions? no - only the septum primum does
212 the afferent arm of the corneal reflex CN V
213 the efferent arm of the corneal reflex CN VII
214 which nerve provides taste sensation over the anterior portion of the tongue? Facial VII
215 girl fracctures humerus through lateral epicondyle. What nerve might be damaged? radial
216 what type of nerve fibers innervate the radial dilator mm? only sympathetic postganglionic fibers
217 what is the status of the fetal heart once the arms, legs, and extremities are nearly fully formed? nearly fully formed, beating
218 from where does the levator veli palatini originate? petrous portion of the temporal bone
219 wrist drop is caused by damage to . radial nerve
220 the lingula belongs to what lobe of the lung? left upper lobe
221 neonate with left-sided intestinal hermiation had a structural anomaly of the pleuroperitoneal membrane (most likely)
222 decreased sensation over with posterior portion of the side of the tongue indicates a lesion of what nerve? CN IX
223 oocytes are derived from the yolk sac
224 winged scapula results from lesions of what cervical nerves? C5-C7 (long thoracic nerve)
225 anterior horn motor neurons of the spinal cord are derived from the basal plate
226 sympathetic plexus that provides pain sensation from the stomach celiac plexus
227 spinal tract that carries two-point touch, vibration, and proprioception dorsal columns
228 where (if anywhere) do the dorsal white columns cross? medullary pyramids
229 spinal tract that carried pain and temperature sensation spinothalamic tract
230 where (if anywhere) does the spinothalamic tract cross? lumbar region
231 where does the corticospinal tract cross? medullary pyramids
232 the smooth part of the right ventricle is derived from bulbus cordis
233 what is located between the cells of the yolk sac and the cells of the cytotrophoblast in a 14-day blastocyst? extraembryonic mesoderm
234 the adult derivative of the ductus venosus ligamentum venosum
235 the ventromedial nucleus mediates what type of behavior? eating behavior (without it, we starve)
236 the transverse cervical ligament carries what aa? uterine
237 biological methylations are mediated by SAM
238 the splenic aa is located in what ligament? splenorenal
239 what respiratory system component is derived from visceral mesoderm? endothelial cells
240 the artery supplying the anterior aspect of the interventricular septum runs in the anterior interventricular sulcus (LAD)
241 the cystic aa is a branch of the right hepatic
242 what nerve mediates the cremasteric reflex? genitofemoral
243 Schwann cells are derived from the neural crest
244 what structure gives rise to the greater omentum? dorsal mesentery
245 from where is the spleen derived? embryonic dorsal mesentery
246 name two membranes that hold the ulna and radius together interosseous (big) and annular (small)
247 intention tremor of the ipsilateral extremity would result from a lesion of the cerebellum
248 tremor that improves with purposeful movement indicates a lesion of the basal ganglia
249 a lesion of the frontal eye field would cause deviation of the eyes toward the lesion
250 the urachus is the remnant of the allantois
251 the urachus connects apex of bladder to umbilicus
252 branch of the axillary artery that forms an anastomosis with branches of the subclavian subscapular aa
253 hypothalamic nuclei involved with circadian rhythms suprachiasmatic nucleus
254 lymph from the scrotum drains into the superficial inguinal nodes
255 the only laryngeal mm innervated by the superior laryngeal nn cricothyroid
256 most of the laryngeal mm are innervated by recurrent laryngeal nerve
257 lies between the flexor carpi radialis and flexor digitorum superficialis median nerve
258 role of the pupillary sphincter muscle pupillary constriction
259 innervation of the pupillary sphincter mm parasympathetic
260 what mm dilates the pupil? radial dilator mm
261 the blood vessels that supply the skin are located in the deep and superficial dermis (the epidermis does not have vessels)
262 what pores on the cell surface allow the passage of small molecules? gap junctions
263 muscle used to get up from a sitting position gluteus maximus


HY Pathology )
#246992
chebli - 11/27/07 20:01

Characteristic Disease
1 phenotype of cretinism pot-bellied, severely retarded, pale child with glossitis and puffy face
2 gene and chromosome associated with bilateral schwannomas NF-2, chromosome 22q
3 chromosome associated with retinoblastoma and osteosarcoma 13q
4 p53 is located on this chromosome 17q
5 gene and chromosome associated with colorectal cancers APC, chromosome 5q
6 lack of secondary sex characteristics in a male, mild mental retardation Klinefelter's
7 genetics of Klinefelters nondisjunction of sex chromosomes
8 another name for type 2a lipidemia familial hypercholesterolemia
9 patients with sickle cell often get gallstones made of calcium bilirubinate
10 genetics of sporadic cases of Duchenne's MD recombination --> frameshift mutation --> untranslatable mRNA
11 trisomy with polydactyly Trisomy 13 (Patau)
12 the GLUT in fat, skeletal mm, and heart GLUT 4
13 the GLUT found in liver, β cells of pancreas, and basolateral surface of small bowel GLUT 2
14 function of pyruvate carboxylase pyruvate + --> OAA +
15 activator of pyruvate carboxylase acetyl CoA
16 inheritance of Huntington's autosomal dominant
17 amenorrhea, short stature, aortic coarctation Turner's (XO)
18 child normal at birth, but with progressive deafness, blindness, diminished responsiveness, and seizures Tay-Sachs
19 musty body odor + mental retardation PKU
20 what substance accumulates in Tay-Sachs? ganglioside GM2
21 deficiency of lipoprotein lipase causes ___ to accumulate after a high-fat meal chylomicrons
22 deficiency of lipoprotein lipase causes ___ to accumulate after a high-CHO meal VLDL
23 what are p and q in the Hardy-Weinburg equation? p = freq of having the dominant gene, q = freq of having the recessive gene
24 q squared in words frequency of people with the characteristic represented by q
25 significance of 2pq frequency of heterozygosity, or carrier frequency
26 Hardy-Weinberg equations p+q=1, (p+q)^2=1
27 hepatomegaly and hypoglycemia suggest what general category of diseases? glycogen storage disease
28 two diseases that occur at high frequency in Ashkenazic Jews Tay-Sachs and Gaucher's
29 high-pitched cat-like cry w/ VSD, mental retardation, microcephaly, and slanted palpebral fissures cri-du-chat syndrome
30 glutamine, glycine, and THF are used in the synthesis of which nucleotides? purines (A, G)
31 multiple phenotypic features seen in a patient with a single gene defect pleiotropy
32 purine salvage is affected by what dz? Lesch-Nyhan
33 CHO chains that will be transferred to a protein are synthesized on dolichol
34 differential transcriptional activity of genes inherited by mom vs dad imprinting
35 lactic acid is the product of what process? anaerobic glycolysis
36 product of β oxidation of fatty acids acetyl CoA
37 products of pentose phosphate shunt (HMP) ribose-5-phosphate and NADPH
38 hepatomegaly with progressive neurologic dysfunction suggests what general category of disease? lipid storage disease
39 Neimann-Pick results from a deficiency in sphingomyelinase
40 corneal opacities, neuropathy, and violacious nodules on skin; transmission is X-linked Fabry's disease
41 Name some X-linked diseases Fabry's, Hunter's, DMD, BMD, G6PD, Lesch-Nyhan, ocular albinism
42 onset of preeclampsia before the 20th week of pregnancy hydatidiform mole
43 fasting hypoglycemia and hypoketosis together suggest what general category of disease? deficiency in fatty acid oxidation
44 role of LCAD 1st step in fatty acid oxidation
45 what substance accumulates in LCAD deficiency? carnitine esters
46 activity of what heart enzyme should be increased in cocaine toxicity? PFK-1 (cocaine --> vasoconstriction of epicardial aa --> glycolysis --> increased PFK-1)
47 what causes the mutations of DMD and BMD? insertions or deletions
48 mature fetal tissue containing Barr bodies suggests Klinefelter's
49 Barr bodies are seen in anyone with 2 X chromosomes (including normal XX females)
50 why does the body need carnitine? it transports fatty acids across the inner mitochondrial membrane for oxidation
51 clinical features of fructosuria none - asx
52 Clinitest measures ___ in urine reducing sugars (glucose, fructose, galactose)
53 in autosomal dominant transmission, the first occurrence in a family is usually the result of new mutation in mom or dad transferred to kid by gamete
54 genetic mutation in acondroplasia fibroblast growth factor 3 (involved in cell signalling)
55 normal cells have __N DNA 2N
56 cells in metaphase of mitosis have __N DNA and __ chromosomes 2N DNA, 46 chromosomes
57 there are 92 chromosomes in which two stages of mitosis? anaphase and telophase
58 gene flow defined exchange of genes among previously-separated populations
59 defined as random fluctuations of gene frequencies among small populations genetic drift
60 aplastic crisis in sickle cell is also called hematologic crisis
61 causes of aplastic crisis in sickle cell patients parvovirus B19 and folate deficiency
62 name a similarity between thrombin and chymotrypsin. serine proteases
63 name some other serine proteases. thrombin, prothrombin, elastase, plasminogen
64 how do steroids work their magic? bind to intracellular receptors, translocate to nucleus, and alter protein synthesis
65 hCG is in the same family as what 3 other hormones? TSH, FSH, and LH
66 transmission of hemophilia X-linked
67 incidence of G6PD deficiency in African-American males 10%
68 G6PD is the committed step of hexose monophosphate shunt
69 without G6PD, ____ is lacking NADPH
70 transmission of G6PD deficiency X-linked
71 transmission of the MEN syndromes autosomal dominant
72 transmission of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy autosomal dominant
73 transmission of G6PD deficiency X-linked
74 transmission of pyruvate kinase deficiency autosomal recessive
75 on what chromosome is the deficiency that causes DiGeorge syndrome? 22
76 paternity testing is based on genetic allotypes
77 laboratory test used to determine if a person has Ab to a particular virus ELISA
78 name the most appropriate lab test to use to determine if a patient with Rb has a heritable form or a sporadic form PCR
79 carnitine acyltransferase II is located on the . inner mito membrane
80 fatty acyl-CoA synthetases are located on the. outer mito membrane
81 the triple helix structure of collagen is initially formed in the rER
82 cleavage of propeptides and cross-linking of strands of collagen occurs extracellularly
83 three common causes for spontaneous abortions Trisomy 16, triploidy, and Turner's (46,X0)
84 transmission pattern of galactosemia autosomal dominant
85 If nondisjunction at chromosome 21 occurs during meiosis I, the baby will have genotype both of the chromosomes from the parent w/ nondisjunction, and one chromosome from the normal parent (i.e. ABC)
86 If nondisjunction at chromosome 21 occurs during meiosis II, the baby will have genotype. two identical chromosomes from the parent w/ nondisjunction, and one chromosome from the normal parent (i.e. AAC)
87 define this occurrence: "a single homologous chromosome fails to separate during the first meiotic division" nondisjunction
88 what is the difference between trisomy and triploidy? trisomy = one of the gametes has 24 chromosomes, for a total of 47; triploidy = 69 chromosomes resulting from two sperm + 1 egg
89 define uniploidly the state of having 23 chromosomes (normal)
90 what is the difference between balanced and unbalanced translocations? both are non-homologous chromosomes that exchange genetic material; balanced = no loss or gain of critical material; nonbalanced = loss or gain of critical material
91 the effect of citrate on PFK-1 allosteric inhibitor (when TCA cycle slows down, so must glycolysis)
92 name a few molecules that form vesicles in water amphipathic molecules with hydrophobic tails - phospholipids and sphingolipids
93 name a few molecules that form droplets in water hydrophobic, nonpolar molecules - cholesterol esters and TGs
94 what happens to cholesterol in aqueous solution? it preciptates
95 refers to a failure of paired chromosomes to separate and go to different daughter cells (during mitosis or meiosis) nondisjunction
96 the protein that carries vesicles from the soma of a nerve cell to the end of the dendrite (anterograde transport) kinesin
97 the protein that carries vesicles in a retrograde direction dynein
98 can heavy irradiation of sex gametes cause Down's syndrome? no - not been proven
99 effect of pyruvate on pyruvate dehydrogenase enzyme activity increases PDH activity (increased pyruvate means increased need for TCA activity)
100 other substances that tend to excite PDH high ADP, high intracellular Ca, decreased ACoA (note these all happen during exercise)
101 what is important about the 3' end of a eukaryotic intron? invariant AG, called the "splice acceptor site"
102 what is important about the 5' end of a eukaryotic intron? invariant GT, called the "splice donor site"
103 proteins that make up gap junctions connexins
104 protein that initiates the formation of zona occludens and desomsomes E-cadherin
105 where in the cell is desmoglein? desmosomes
106 the incidence of an x-linked dz in a male population is equal to gene frequency in the population
107 to determine if a person is a carried of the CF mutation, what lab test should be done? PCR and gene sequencing for deltaF508
108 define heteroplasmy presence of normal AND mutated mitochondrial DNA in one individual
109 a deficiency in clathrin would produce what cellular problems? endocytosis, delivery of lysosomal enzymes to the lysosomes from the Golgi
110 the Go phase of the cell cycle begins during what phase? G1
111 name the phases of the cell cycle (in order, please) G1 > S > G2 > M
112 Hirschprung's disease results from what embryologic deficit? failure of neural crest cells to end up there
113 why are female carriers of X-linked disorders often mildly affected? X chromosomes are inactivated, and most of the mutant ones are inactive
114 the four required enzymes in gluconeogenesis pyruvate carboxylase, fructose 1,6 bisphosphatase, PEP carboxykinase, glucose 6-phosphatase (Pathway Produces Fresh Glu)
115 enzyme deficiency in Pompe's disease alpha glucosidase
116 transmission of Wiscott-Aldrich X-linked
117 does pinocytosis require clathrin? no (only receptor-mediated endocytosis)
118 average life span of a patient with Edward's trisomy 2-3 months
119 melanin is made from what aa? tyrosine
120 patients with tyrosinase deficiency are susceptible to what types of cancer? skin cancers
121 neonate with IUGR and genetic abnormality of the placenta only confined placental mosaicism
122 can ACoA be used to make glucose? NO NO NO NO NO
123 in dieting obese individuals who take in little CHO, where does the glucose come from? (hint: engogenous pathway) glycerol > gluconeogenesis
124 if uracil is high, what urea cycle enzyme is working properly? carbamoyl phosphate
125 dietary deficiency in folate is usually due to (2) overcooking or old foods
126 the genetic defect in Angelman syndrome deletion of q12 on maternal chromosome 15
127 enzyme deficiency in albinism tyrosine hydroxylase
128 the splice acceptor site is located 3' end of the intron
129 the 5' end of an intron has the splice donor site
130 what charge do NH3 groups have at pH=7? (+) charge
131 two basic amino acids lys, arg
132 two acidic amino acids glu, asp
133 what type of receptor is EGF-R? tyrosine kinase
134 nucleotide made from excess carbamoyl phosphate uracil
135 high amounts of glutamine may indicate a deficiency in what urea cycle enzyme? ornithine transcarbamoylase
136 during RNA synthesis, how many ATP equivalents are used to elongate the chain by 1

[ArchivalUser]

what is this list? i am new.

[ArchivalUser]

is it uw notes.????

[ArchivalUser]

these are the ones i have fromDr Chebli...............