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q6 - 2confused2bdoctor
#1
38-year-old woman comes to her physician for a routine check of her health status. On physical examination she has a 1.2 cm irregular, darkly pigmented "mole" on the skin of her upper back. Excisional biopsy of the lesion is performed. Microscopic examination shows a malignant melanoma that is 2 mm in thickness, with margins clear. Which of the following statements is most appropriate regarding this woman's skin lesion?
A She will not have to worry further about this lesion
B The lesion has occurred in a non sun-exposed area
C There is a genetic basis for the occurrence of this lesion
D Human papillomavirus infection was present
E There may be metastases within 5 years

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#2
a.
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#3
e?
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#4
a.
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#5
c?
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#6
E is the right answer..this is very thick and suggests that there is a much poorer prognosis than a melanoma only 0.75 mm thick (which has a 98% 5 year disease free interval).
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