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q-5 - dr_eas12
#1
A 38-year-old man is receiving warfarin therapy for treatment of a deep venous thrombosis of the left leg that he developed 3 weeks ago. He comes for his scheduled prothrombin time INR determination. He denies gingival bleeding, hematuria, nosebleeds, or gastrointestinal disorders but reports a sore throat and fever that started about 1 week ago. He has not been able to swallow and has consequently been on a mostly clear liquid diet for the last week.

On physical examination, his temperature is 38.0 °C (100.4 °F). His posterior pharynx is erythematous but without exudate. There are several scattered ecchymoses on the forearms and legs. The remainder of the examination is normal.

The laboratory evaluation reveals a hematocrit of 41%; activated partial thromboplastin time of 37 s; and a prothrombin time INR of 6.0.

Which of the following is most appropriate for initial management of this patient™s elevated INR?

( A ) Transfuse two to four units of fresh frozen plasma
( B ) Stop warfarin; give vitamin K, orally
( C ) Stop warfarin; give vitamin K, intravenously
( D ) Stop warfarin; give vitamin K, intramuscularly
( E ) Stop warfarin

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#2
bb
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#3
B...
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#4
b.
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#5
YES, you are all good
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#6
Are you sure answer is B.
Please check out i don't agree, it should be either C or D, practically oral Vit K in this scenario is out of Question.
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