_ drkhmer 10: Saroj...would you want to try this.. - drkhmer

[ArchivalUser]

_ A 43-year-old man with severe acquired aplastic anemia has not responded to immunosuppressive agents. He remains neutropenic and transfusion-dependent for platelets and red cells. He has an HLA-identical brother who has been cleared as a donor for his planned allogeneic stem cell transplant.
They are both cytomegalovirus-seronegative. Which of the following would be prevented by using irradiated cellular blood products for this patient?

A. Cytomegalovirus disease
B. Alloimmunization
C. Transfusion-related graft-versus-host disease
D. Febrile nonhemolytic transfusion reaction
E. Hemolytic transfusion reaction

[ArchivalUser]

CCCCCCC

[ArchivalUser]

ccc

[ArchivalUser]

c.

[ArchivalUser]

explain plz

[ArchivalUser]

CCC

[ArchivalUser]

dddddd...

[ArchivalUser]

_ The Correct ans is CCC:
The sole reason for blood irradiation is to prevent transfusion-related graft-versus-host disease (GVHD) in patients at risk for it. Transfusion-related GVHD has a high mortality rate. Not only are the liver, skin, and gastrointestinal system under immunologic attack, but the recipients bone marrow is also destroyed by the donor T cells.
Gamma irradiation of cellular blood products prevents transfusion-related GVHD by rendering donor T cells nonviable and incapable of mounting a GVHD response. The dose used is between 25 and 50 Gy. Higher doses may interfere with the function or survival of red cells and platelets. Leukocyte reduction is not sufficient for this purpose because it leaves behind too many cells.
Irradiation at this dose has no effect on the transmission of cytomegalovirus (or any pathogen), alloimmune sensitization, or leukocyte antigenicity. Although the cells are nonviable and will not cause a sustained attack against the host, they can still elaborate cytokine. Therefore, irradiation will not prevent febrile reactions. Irradiation has no effect on any of the mechanisms of transfusion-induced hemolysis.