~Red eye...... - pindi

[ArchivalUser]

A 35-year-old woman is evaluated for a red right eye that is also tearing; her symptoms have developed over the past 24 hours. Her vision is not altered, and she denies eye pain, trauma to the eye, changes in visual acuity, or pruritus.

On physical examination, the right conjunctiva is diffusely red, and the eye is tearing with clear discharge. The left eye appears normal. The vision is 20/20 in both eyes.

Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

A Topical antibiotics
B No further treatment
C Topical antihistamines
D Urgent referral to an ophthalmologist
E Topical corticosteroids

[ArchivalUser]

BBB

[ArchivalUser]

d.

it could be ekc, should refer to eye doctors for sle (slit lamp exam)

[ArchivalUser]

ccc

[ArchivalUser]

no prurit so why antihistam
ac visu 20/20
no pain
b...

[ArchivalUser]

D
Antihistamin for bilate and pruritis

[ArchivalUser]

most common cause of conjunctivitis = adenovirus 3 casing conjunctivitis with watery discharge,
point to be noted.. in this, most commonly it is also associated with pharyngitis(pharyngoconjunctival fever)

CMDT also says that topical sulfonamides may help in prevennting secondry bacterial infection, but specifically for treating virus = no treatment period

[ArchivalUser]

~ B .............

This patient with a red eye and tearing most likely has viral conjunctivitis. This is a self-limited process that is expected to resolve spontaneously. No further treatment is required. The key aspects of the history that are used to establish this patient's diagnosis are the presence of a red eye, the absence of ocular pain, and the absence of visual changes. The patient can be reassured but told that the process may spread to the other eye and could be contagious for 2 weeks.