Random question 2 - harish1981

[ArchivalUser]

A 36-year-old patient you have seen twice is
brought to your walk-in department by family
members. On previous occasions, he presented
with delusions, hallucinations, and prominent
negative symptoms. During the visit, he
exhibits motoric, waxy flexibility and resistance
to all instructions. He methodically
repeats words and phrases and appears to
crudely mimic your movements. The most
likely diagnosis is which of the following?

(A) elective mutism
(B) malingering
© schizophrenia, disorganized type
(D) schizophrenia, catatonic type
(E) drug-induced psychosis

[ArchivalUser]

DDD

[ArchivalUser]

cccccccc

[ArchivalUser]

ANS: (D) Clearly, on previous occasions, this patient™s
presentation has strongly suggested schizophrenia
and now he is presenting with classic
catatonic features: negativism, hypomotorism,
and echolalia with echopraxia. The diagnosis of
schizophrenia makes elective mutism very
unlikely. There is no evidence of secondary
gain, making a diagnosis of malingering similarly
unlikely. Drug-induced psychosis is unlikely
to result in the classical symptoms of catatonic
schizophrenia.

[ArchivalUser]

thank