03-26-2009, 01:45 PM
5. A 44-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department 40 minutes after being stabbed in the left groin. Her blood pressure is 128/84 mm Hg, pulse is 100/min, and respirations are 16/min. Examination of the wound shows a small hematoma and no external bleeding. Popliteal and pedal pulses are palpable in the left lower extremity below the injury. Lacerations of the femoral artery and vein are found and repaired. Two days postoperatively, she has progressively severe pain of the left lower extremity and swelling of the leg from the knee down. Which of the following is the most likely cause of her new symptoms?
O A) Arterial embolism
O B) Compartment syndrome
O C) Lymphatic disruption from the injury
O D) Thrombosis of the femoral vein
0 E) Wound hemorrhage
O A) Arterial embolism
O B) Compartment syndrome
O C) Lymphatic disruption from the injury
O D) Thrombosis of the femoral vein
0 E) Wound hemorrhage