07-23-2009, 07:06 AM
3. A healthy 24-year-old woman comes for a routine health maintenance examination. Menses occur at regular 28-day intervals and last 5 to 6 days. Her last menstrual period was 3 weeks ago. She takes no medications. Bimanual examination shows a 5-cm, mildly tender left adnexa. A pregnancy test is negative. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A
) Repeat examination in 2 weeks
B
) Measurement of serum CA 125 level
C
) Measurement of serum α-fetoprotein level
D
) CT scan of the pelvis
E
) Diagnostic laparoscopy
A
) Repeat examination in 2 weeks
B
) Measurement of serum CA 125 level
C
) Measurement of serum α-fetoprotein level
D
) CT scan of the pelvis
E
) Diagnostic laparoscopy