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nbme1blk1 q30 - usmleck99
#1
One month after undergoing an uneventful renal transplant for chronic renal failure secondary to glomerulonephritis, a 38-year-old woman is hospitalized because of increased serum urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine levels. Prior to transplantation, she had been receiving hemodialysis for 3 years. Current medications include cyclosporine and prednisone. Examination shows no abnormalities. Over the past 48 hours, urine output has remained stable. Both renal biopsy and a radionuclide scan confirm the diagnosis of acute rejection. Which of the following is the most effective treatment?

A
) Immediate discontinuation of cyclosporine

B
) Increased dosage of corticosteroids

C
) Diuresis and alkalinization of the urine

D
) Renal dialysis for 1–2 weeks

E
) Transplant nephrectomy


answe key is bb but why not stop cyclosporin 1st?
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#2
B..that's the first thing u do in acute rejection...always!
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#3
ok ..i think i overlooked the q - its acute rejection[as diagnosis is given] not renal toxicity due to cyclosporin.
thank u so much.
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