Patho Q - sage2006

[ArchivalUser]

A 55-year-old man develops thickened, dark areas of involving the axilla and groin. Biopsy shows sharply undulating, hyperkeratotic epidermis without obviously melanocytic hyperplasia. The patient's clinician should be seriously concerned about the possibility of coexistence of which of the following diseases?

A). Gastric carcinoma
B). Intracranial lymphoma
C). Melanoma
D). Prostate carcinoma
E). Systemic lupus erythematosus.

[ArchivalUser]

intracranial lymphoma, i think

[ArchivalUser]

a gastric carcinoma

[ArchivalUser]

A Gastric CA.

[ArchivalUser]

Can you explain a little bit?

[ArchivalUser]

its acanthosis nigricans
its a pigmented skin lesion commonly seen in the axilla
its a phenotypic marker for an underlying adenocarcinoma of the stomach

[ArchivalUser]

Acanthosis nigricans, associated with type II DM in patients under 40, associated with visceral malignancy in patients over 40 years old.

[ArchivalUser]

yup its Gastric CA