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nbme7>>>>>> - usmlerock99
#1
44.
A 72-year-old woman comes to the physician because of an increase in abdominal girth over the past 2 months. She has had a 3.6-kg (8-lb) weight gain during this period despite being unable to finish any meal. She has one martini daily after her 3-mile walk. She underwent lumpectomy and radiation therapy for stage I breast cancer 4 years ago and has been treated with tamoxifen since then. Abdominal examination shows a fluid wave. Pelvic examination shows an 8-cm, fixed, nontender mass in the cul-de-sac. Laboratory studies show normal findings. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

A
)
Intravenous albumin therapy

B
)
Intravenous antibiotic therapy

C
)
Intravenous cisplatin and paclitaxel therapy

D
)
Oral angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor therapy

E
)
Oral spironolactone therapy

F
)
Therapeutic paracentesis

G
)
Exploratory laparotomy
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#2
G??
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#3
G, you need to do that Ex Lap do check out the pelvic mass. 8cm is HUGE
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