CMS PSY block1 - cathywx

[ArchivalUser]

47 year old man is admitted to the hospital 20 minutes after he was involved in a motor vehicle collision. He was an unrestrained passenger. He has a history of cocaine abuse and meperidine dependence but has not used illicit drugs for 9 years. He takes no medications. Physical examination shows several deep lacerations on the lower extremities. There are no other injuries. Serum and urine toxicology screening is negative for opioids, cocaine, and alcohol. Extensive wound debridement and suturing are planned. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient's pain?
a. administration of gabapentin and amitriptyline
b. administration of ibuprofen
c. administration of morphine
d. acupunctufe and applicaiton of cold pacls
e. transcutaenous electrical nerve stimulation

C is correct, why the rest is not right?
thx

[ArchivalUser]

because no matter what pt is addicted to or have history of addiction - you need to provide proper anesthesia. And the most common medication and your first choice is short acting morphine

[ArchivalUser]

thanks @ munchkino