08-06-2006, 03:51 AM
A 56-year-old woman comes to the physician™s office for her first health maintenance examination in the past 5 years. She has a 2×2.5cm lesion 4 cm from the nipple in the outer upper quadrant of her left breast. The lesion is nontender and nonmobile and has ill-defined borders. There is no discharge on compression of the nipple. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for these findings?
A) Adenocarcinoma
B) Benign lymph node enlargement
C) Fibroadenoma
D) Fibrocystic disease
E) Metastatic carcinoma
A) Adenocarcinoma
B) Benign lymph node enlargement
C) Fibroadenoma
D) Fibrocystic disease
E) Metastatic carcinoma