nbme 2 q - drviks

[ArchivalUser]

9) A 52-year-old man is found to have hypertension during a routine examination A systolic bruit is heard over the left renal artery Angiography shows a discrete 95% obstructive lesion within the left renal artery; the right renal artery is normal The right kidney is 11 ern, and the left kidney is 8.5 cm Which of the following describes the most likely response to treatment?

A) Decreased plasma renin activity and decreased serum angiotensin I concentration following administration of a loop diuretic

B) Decreased plasma renin activity following administration of an angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor (ACEI)

C) Increased plasma renin activity and decreased serum angiotensin I concentrations following administration of a loop diuretic

D) Increased plasma renin activity following administration of an ACEI

[ArchivalUser]

b... ?

[ArchivalUser]

B or D I m confused..any1??

[ArchivalUser]

even i was... i was thinkin d but don know what the correct answer is.

[ArchivalUser]

any1111

[ArchivalUser]

prior to treatment, this patient has high levels of renin activity on the left b/c of the obstruction. this is increasing the bp.

with treatment (ACEI), a decrease in angII will cause a decrease in bp. because of the inhibition of ACE, angI and renin will increase. but this time since there's a block, the bp doesn't increase.

does that make sense?

[ArchivalUser]

answer and explaination plzzzzzzzzzzzzz