A 32-year-old woman - malak

[ArchivalUser]

A 32-year-old woman comes to the physician because of amenorrhea. She had menarche at age 13 and has had normal periods since then. However, her last menstrual period was 8 months ago. She also complains of an occasional milky nipple discharge. She has no medical problems and takes no medications. She is particularly concerned because she would like to become pregnant as soon as possible. Examination shows a whitish nipple discharge bilaterally, but the rest of the examination is unremarkable. Urine human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) is negative. Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) is normal. Prolactin is elevated. Head MRI scan is unremarkable. Which of the following is the most appropriate pharmacotherapy?


A. Bromocriptine

B. Dicloxacillin

C. Magnesium sulfate

D. Oral contraceptive pill (OCP)

E. Thyroxine

[ArchivalUser]

a....

[ArchivalUser]

a

[ArchivalUser]

yup a