02-05-2007, 11:52 PM
38. A 42-year-old man presents with a crush injury to his left lower extremity. He complains of severe leg pain that seems out of proportion to his injury. He also complains of paresthesias of the injured extremity. Leg examination is significant for pallor and coldness. The dorsalis pedis and posterior tibialis pulses are not palpable. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
a. arterial insufficiency
b. pelvic fracture
c. aortic insufficiency
d. aortic dissection
e. compartment syndrome
a. arterial insufficiency
b. pelvic fracture
c. aortic insufficiency
d. aortic dissection
e. compartment syndrome