06-17-2007, 09:56 AM
42. A 32-year-old nulligravid woman comes to the physician because she has been unable to conceive for 3 years. Menarche was at the age of 13 years. Menses occur at irregular 1- to 6-month intervals and often last more than 2 weeks. She has been sexually active since the age of 17 years and has never used contraception. She weighs 100 kg (220 lb) and is 168 cm (66 in) tall. Examination shows increased facial and abdominal hair, excessive sebum production, and facial acne vulgaris. Pelvic examination shows normal external genitalia, a well-estrogenized vagina, and a normal cervix and uterus. Bimanual examination shows enlarged (5 x 5 cm) ovaries bilaterally, they are mildly tender and multicystic on palpation. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
O A) Measurement of early morning serum cortisol level
O B) Measurement of serum testosterone and dehydroepiandrosterone sulfate levels
O C) Dexamethasone suppression test
O D) Pituitary stimulation test
O E) Exploratory operation
Sounds like PCOS, so maybe BB. but the best should be FSH/LH testing.... I wonder why they do not include it here..
O A) Measurement of early morning serum cortisol level
O B) Measurement of serum testosterone and dehydroepiandrosterone sulfate levels
O C) Dexamethasone suppression test
O D) Pituitary stimulation test
O E) Exploratory operation
Sounds like PCOS, so maybe BB. but the best should be FSH/LH testing.... I wonder why they do not include it here..