pop genetics - keira

[ArchivalUser]

hi
agree with fhelou
in ans as well as explanation

[ArchivalUser]

no adrenalline82
1/60 is the probability that the mother will pass her mutated chromosome to her offspring
you can think of it either way

[ArchivalUser]

mr pawan in the question,couples carrier rate is given man and to get individual carrier rate of mother and father it must be divided by half.then both the probabilities are multiplied as explained by uw.am i wrong ?u still dnt agree with me

[ArchivalUser]

fhelou is correct..
It just says carrier frequency- which would mean as fhelou said.. the probability of transmission from mother being 1/60 and from father being 1/200.

[ArchivalUser]

that's what i think adrenalline

let's suppose
for d time being

mother's chance of being carrier is 1/60 n of father is 1/200
rt
even then how can we think of multiplying 1/60 * 1/200

then where is d concept of autosomal domninant vs recessive ds
it never come in picture , if we calculate like this
isn't it
open to discussion n correction

[ArchivalUser]

i think both fhelou and adrenallin r rt :
in an AR dis chance of affected child of a carrier mother and father is 1/4 z concept fhelou used in z equation mother frequ*father frequ*1/4
this 1/4 mean probability that both mother and father will pass the mutant allel (1/2*1/2 which is the concept of adrenalline ,
so bothe r rt with different explanation