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q5 - raji_321
#1
A 35-year-old woman who is at 16 weeks' gestation visits the clinic for a routine evaluation. Her pregnancy has been uncomplicated to date. This is her first pregnancy. She has been
previously healthy and does not take any medications. On examination, her blood pressure is 160/110 mm Hg. Urinalysis reveals 3+ proteinuria. Which of the following is the most likely cause of these findings?
A. Anencephaly
B. Hydatidiform mole
C. Maternal renal disease
D. Neural tube defect
E. Twin gestation
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#2
B.
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#3
B is correct
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