q8 - 2confused2bdoctor

[ArchivalUser]

38-year-old man has had upper abdominal pain for 3 months. For the past week he has had nausea. On physical examination a stool sample tested for occult blood is positive. An upper GI endoscopy reveals no esophageal lesions, but there is a solitary 2 cm diameter shallow, sharply demarcated ulceration of the stomach. Which of the following statements regarding this lesion is most appropriate?
A It is probably located in the antrum.
B It is probably malignant
C It is probably associated with increased gastric acid production.
D Because of its small size, a biopsy is not necessary
E A gastrinoma of the pancreas is probably present

[ArchivalUser]

located in antrum near lesser curvature and prepyloric regions...pounched out margins.

[ArchivalUser]

A is correct.. The gastric antrum is a typical location for a benign peptic ulcer.