07-08-2008, 02:04 PM
42. A 42-year-old man comes for a routine health maintenance examination. There is no family history of coronary artery disease, and he does not smoke. His weight is appropriate for his height. His blood pressure is 120/80 mm Hg. Serum lipid studies show a total cholesterol level of 190 mg/dL, HDL-cholesterol level of 40 mg/dL, and triglyceride level of 150 mg/dL. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A) Recommend the Step 2 National Cholesterol Education Program diet
B) Measure serum LDL-cholesterol level now
C) Measure total serum cholesterol level in 5 years
D) Prescribe prophylactic aspirin
E) Begin treatment with lovastatin
A) Recommend the Step 2 National Cholesterol Education Program diet
B) Measure serum LDL-cholesterol level now
C) Measure total serum cholesterol level in 5 years
D) Prescribe prophylactic aspirin
E) Begin treatment with lovastatin