01-01-2009, 09:11 AM
On the morning of the second day after delivering a 3,500-g infant, a 16-year old gravida 1, para 0 develops a temperature of 1010 F (38.30C). Her antepartum course was unremarkable. Membranes ruptured shortly after hospital admission and the onset of labor was spontaneous but desultory. Oxytocin augmentation was necessary. The first stage of labor was 22 hours; the second stage was 3 hours and 45 minutes. Delivery of the vertex was expedited by vacuum forceps over an intact perineum under pudendal block anesthesia. The placenta delivered spontaneously. Since delivering, she had been ambulating and eating well. Physical examination reveals a temperature of 1020F (38.80C), a pulse of 108 bpm, respirations 22/min, and a blood pressure of 110/60. Breasts are full with moderate colostrum secretion from the nipples. The abdomen is soft; there is no liver, kidney, or spleen palpable. The perineum is clean, and the lochia rubra has a foul odor. Pelvic examination is within normal limits for postpartum status except for uterine tenderness to motion and foul lochia. Examination of the extremities, including previous intravenous sites, is within normal limits. Which of the following is the next best step in her management?
(A) Begin oral methylergonovine, encourage fluid intake, re-evaluate in four hours
(B) Culture the lochia and start acetaminophen; await culture report
© Initiate imipenem/cilastatin intravenous therapy
(D) Order a CBC, encourage fluid intake, re-evaluate in four hours
(E) Start a first-generation cephalosporin orally
(A) Begin oral methylergonovine, encourage fluid intake, re-evaluate in four hours
(B) Culture the lochia and start acetaminophen; await culture report
© Initiate imipenem/cilastatin intravenous therapy
(D) Order a CBC, encourage fluid intake, re-evaluate in four hours
(E) Start a first-generation cephalosporin orally