A middle age patient presents with history of - dr2k2

[ArchivalUser]

will go for C .. PNH .. pancytopenia and intravascular hemolysis resulting in decreased haptoglobin

[ArchivalUser]

Think C too. It's an intrinsic hemolytic anemia becuase of the cell membrane defect - and it is a intravascular hemolysis

[ArchivalUser]

C. dec haptoglobin suggests intravascular hemolysis and positive sucrose hemolysis test suggests PNH wch is a membrane defect ie intrinsic hemolytic anemia.

[ArchivalUser]

C is the correct answer

The patient most likely suffers from paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria, an acquired stem-cell disorder characterized by complement-induced hemolytic anemia, red urine (due to the appearance of hemoglobin in the urine) and thrombosis ( in this case in either the superior or inferior mesenteric vein causing ischemia). Erectile dysfunction is due to rapid destruction of the RBCs.

A IS INCORRECT: Intrinsic hemolytic anemia/extravascular hemolysis most likely the case of sickle cell anemia.

B IS INCORRECT: Extrinsic hemolytic anemia/intravascular hemolysis most likely the case of macroangiopathic hemolytic anemia (aortic stenosis, is the most common cause).

D IS INCORRCT: Extrinsic hemolytic anemia/extravascular hemolysis most likely the case of warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia.

E IS INCORRECT: Positive Direct Coomb™s Test/extravascular hemolysis most likely the case of drug-induced hemolytic anemia.