why is it that when treating gonnorheae,chlamydia - dr.kd

[ArchivalUser]

must also be treated simultaneously, but when treating chlaymidia, gonnorheae doesnt have to be treated?

[ArchivalUser]

if you have somebody with gonorrhea you always treat for BOTH with ceftriaxone+azythromycin

if the patient does have chlamydia, you only treat chlamydia

[ArchivalUser]

yes... but why?

[ArchivalUser]

because chlamydia is so often occuring, you suspect that somebody who has gonorrhea (which is not THAT common) to be infected with chlamydia, too.

[ArchivalUser]

thanks! that definitely makes sense! good luck for the exam!

[ArchivalUser]

Chlamydia is a little difficult to diagnosis that you don't see it with a simple G+ stain (intracellular bacteria)- instead of going to more sophiscated diagnosis, why not just treat since the prevenlance is high.


On the other hand, if don't see Gonococcal with a Gram stain, very likely this person don't have gonorrhea, so you don't need to treat gonorrhea.

Just my two cents.

[ArchivalUser]

thanks