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q129 - sami2004
#1
A 76-year-old white woman presents to you because of complaints
of new-onset headache. She thinks it has been present
for about 2 months. It occurs daily. She also has had some
fatigue and has lost about 5 pounds during the past month.
On further questioning, she complains of morning stiffness
lasting about 1 hour. Physical examination is essentially within
normal limits for her age. Results of initial laboratory studies
show a mild normochromic anemia and an increased erythrocyte
sedimentation rate (55 mm in 1 hour).

Which of the following would be the next most appropriate step?
a. Temporal artery biopsy
b. Bone marrow biopsy
c. Initiation of prednisone therapy 15 mg/day orally
d. Electromyography
e. Upper aortic arch angiography
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#2
??? C.
Polyarthralgia rheumatica
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#3
...
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#4
i guess do the biopsy here 1st-
when do u usually post answers?
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#5
C,
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#6
A ,,,,, steroid would be first choice but dose given here is inadequate so A
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#7
yeah I agree with funny3 it is steroid but it requires high doses so I would go for AAA
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#8
B.
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#9
dose not adequate so aaa
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